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CWE PO - REASONING FOUR


REASONING - FOUR

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Clove (2) Cinnamon (3) Pepper (4) Cardamom (5) Apricot
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the
English alphabet?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR, using each letter only once?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
4. Pointing to a photograph Rasika said “He is the grandson of my grandmother’s only son”. How is the boy in photograph related to Rasika?
(1) Son (2) Nephew (3) Brother (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
5. In a certain code ‘open the door’ is written as ‘ka te jo’, ‘door is closed’ is written as ‘jo pa ma’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘la ra pa’. What is the code
for ‘closed’?
(1) ma (2) pa (3) jo (4) ka (5) None of these
Q. 6-10. These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
7 D 5 # A B 1 % K $ 4 E J F 3 �� 2 H I @ L 6 Q U © 9 M T 8 W
6. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
(1) K41 (2) ��HF (3) #B5 (4) M8© (5) LQI
8. Which of the following pairs of elements has the second element, immediately followed by the first element?
(1) 5# (2) MT (3) $4 (4) 3F (5) @L
9. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded
by a consonant?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
10. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
A#D $K1 3FE ?
(1) @I2 (2) ��HI (3) H2@ (4) HIL (5) None of these
Q. 11-15. In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
11. Some shoes are socks.
All socks are towels.
All towels are bed sheets.
No bed sheet is blanket.
Conclusions:
I. No towel is blanket.
II. Some shoes are towels.
III. Some shoes are bed sheets.
(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow (4) All follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
12. Some fruits are flowers.
Some flowers are buds.
No bud is leaf.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions:
I. No plant is bud.
II. Some plants are flowers.
III. Some buds are fruits.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
(3) Only II and III follow (4) Only III follows

(5) None of these
Statements:
13. Some pearls are gems.
Some gems are diamonds.
All diamonds are rings.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions:
I. Some bangles are rings.
II. All rings are diamonds.
III. All diamonds are bangles.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow (4) All follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
14. All chairs are tables.
All tables are telephones.
All telephones are cell phones.
No cell phone is computer.
Conclusions:
I. All cell phones are tables.
II. Some chairs are computers.
III. No chair is computer.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either II or III follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
15. Some rocks are hills.
All hills are mountains.
All mountains are rivers.
No river is canal.
Conclusions:
I. All rocks are rivers.
II. Some hills are canals.
III. Some rivers are canals.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None follows
Q. 16-20. Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani,Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Savita is second to the right of Anjali, but is not a neighbour of Amita. Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita. Jyoti is second to the right of Rani and third to the left of Meeta.
16. Who is second to the left of Anjali?
(1) Radhika (2) Rani (3) Amita (4) Meeta (5) None of these
17. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha?
(1) Jyoti (2) Radhika (3) Meeta (4) Jyoti or Radhika (5) None of these
18. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani?
(1) To the immediate right of Anjali
(2) To the immediate left of Anjali
(3) To the immediate right of Savita
(4) Next to Jyoti
(5) None of these
19. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Nisha?
(1) Jyoti and Meeta
(2) Radhika and Meeta
(3) Savita and Jyoti
(4) Radhika and Jyoti
(5) None of these
20. Who is to the immediate left of Savita?
(1) Jyoti (2) Anjali (3) Rani (4) Meeta (5) None of these
Q. 21-25. In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the
following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules:
(i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be divided by the second one.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are to be added.
(iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number.
(v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect square, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
21. 16 7 25
m 23 22
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(1) 132 (2) 88 (3) 122 4) 78 (5) None of these
22. 97 45 71
48 8 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
(1) 68 (2) 19 (3) 147 (4) 64 (5) None of these
23. 125 64 33
282 x 39
If ‘x’ is resultant of the ffirst row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(1) 45 (2) 42 (3) 39 (4) 36 (5) None of these
24. 84 14 13
360 24 17
What is the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row?
(1) 100 (2) 46 (3) 56 (4) 90 (5) None of these
25. 24 7 81
x 27 19
If ‘x’ is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(1) 87 (2) 114 (3) 4 (4) 6 (5) None of these
Q. 26-30. Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below it.
Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different cities Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.
A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Bangalore but is not a Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.
26. What is D’s profession?
(1) Doctor (2) Professor (3) Engineer
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
27. Who is the Professor?
(1) B (2) C (3) D
(4) E (5) None of these
28. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct?
(1) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(2) Engineer—Chennai
(3) Doctor—Bangalore
(4) Artist—Mumbai
(5) None of these
29. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur?
(1) B (2) G (3) C
(4) B or G (5) None of these
30. Who is the Doctor?
(1) D (2) B (3) C
(4) B or C (5) None of these
Q. 31-35. In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or
further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action
logically follow(s) or pursuing.

Give answer:(1) if only I follows.
(2) if only II follows.
(3) if either I or II follows.
(4) if neither I nor II follows.
(5) if both I and II follow.
Statement:
31. Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas.
Courses of action:
I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for
maintenance of vehicles.
II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.
Statement:
32. Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of action:
I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/ Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Government should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.
Statement:
33. Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities.
Courses of action:
I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their work places.
II. Government should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.
Statement:
34. Increasing levels of air-pollution is creating health-hazards for people living in the cities.
Courses of action:
I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts to the cities.
II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to run on CNG.
Statement:
35. Large number of college students are found to be focusing more on fashion than on studies.
Courses of action:
I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable clothes and accessories.
II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don’t find time for other things like fashion.

Qs. 36-40. Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements
may be the effect of the othe statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer:
(1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
36. A. Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by private vehicles.
B. A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries for many children.
37. A. The city observed lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy fog during the week.
B. Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers.
38. A. In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified youth.
B. Many youth are not able to get jobs upto their expectations.
39. A. During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city.
B. Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.
40. A. During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles.
B. Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.

41. ‘Teacher’ is related to ‘school’ in the same way as ‘cook’ is related to ‘___’
(1) Food (2) Kitchen (3) Hostel (4) House (5) Market
42. Atul walks 20 metres towards South. Turning to the left he walks 30 metres, then turning right he walks 10 metres, then turning right he walks 40 metres, then turning right he walks 30 metres and stops. In what direction is he with respect to his starting point?
(1) South-West (2) West (3) North-West (4) He is at starting point
(5) None of these
43. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series?
TG HU VI JW ?
(1) KY (2) KX (3) YK (4) XK (5) None of these
44. Satish is 15 ranks above Sushil who ranks 28th in a class of 50. What is Satish’s rank from the bottom?
1) 39 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 35 (5) None of these
45. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
(1) Year (2) Month (3) Day (4) Week (5) Time
Directions (Question Nos. 46 to 49): For the post of an administrative assistant, five candidates (A, B, C, D and E) were short listed. It was decided that the final selection shall be done on the basis of a series of all day group personal interviews. The selection committee agreed upon the following procedure.
(i) The interviews will be held once a week.
(ii) No more than three candidates would appear at any all day interview session.
(iii) Each candidate would appear at least once.
(iv) If it becomes necessary to call applications for additional interviews, no more than one such applicant should be asked to appear the next week.
(v) Because of a detail in the written applications, it was agreed that whenever
candidate B appears, A should also be present.
(vi) Because of travel difficulties, it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview.
46. At the first interview, the following candidates appeared : A, B and D. Which of the following combinations can be called for the interview, to be held next week?
(1) ABC (2) BCD
(3) CDE (4) ABE (5) None of these.
47. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in two successive weeks?
(1) BDE; ACD (2) ABC; BDE
(3) ABD; ABE (4) ADE; ABC (5) None of these.
48. If A, B and D appear at the interview, and D is called for an additional interview the following week, which two candidates may be asked to appear with D?
(I) A (II) B (III) C (IV) E
(1) III and IV only (2) I and II only
(3) I and III only (4) II and III only (5) None of these
49. Which of the following correctly states the procedure followed by the selection committee
(I) After the interview, all applicants have appeared at least once.
(II) The committee sees at least one applicant a second time.
(III) If a third session is held; it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice.
(1) Only III (2) Only I
(3) Only II (4) Only I and II (5) None of these
Directions (Question Nos. 50 and 51): Study the information given below to answer the questions.
A certain city is served by six subway lines designated by the letters A, B and C and the numbers 1, 2 and 3:
_ When it snows morning service on line B is delayed.
_ When it rains or snows service on lines A, 2 and 3 is delayed both morning and afternoon.
_ When the temperature drops below 30°F, afternoon service is cancelled on either line A or line 3, but not on both.
_ When the temperature rises above 90°F afternoon service is cancelled on either line C or line 3, but not on both.
_ When service on line A is delayed or cancelled service on line C, which connects with line A is delayed.
_ When service on line 3 is cancelled, service on line B, which connects with the 3 lines, is delayed.
50. On January 10th with the temperature 15°F it snows all day. On how many lines will service be affected including both morning and afternoon?
(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these
51. On August 15th with the temperature a 97°F, it begins to rain at 1 P.M. What is the minimum number of lines on which service will be affected.
(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these
52. A study of native born residents in Delhi found that two-thirds of the children developed considerable levels of near-sightedness after starting
school, while their illiterate parents and grandparents, who had no opportunity for formal schooling, showed no signs of this disability.
If the above statements are true, which of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by them?
(1) Only literate people are near-sighted.
(2) Only people who have the opportunity for formal schooling develop near-sightedness.
(3) People who are illiterate do not suffer from near-sightedness.
(4) The near-sightedness in the children is caused by the visual stress required by reading and other class work.
(5) None of these
Directions (Question Nos. 53 and 54): Study the information given below to answer the questions.
All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat a well balanced diet are bad athletes.
53. If the assumptions of the arguments above are true, then which of the following statements must be true?
(1) All athletes who want to win are good athletes
(2) No bad athlete wants to win
(3) No athlete who does not eat a well balanced diet is a good athlete
(4) Every athlete who eats a well balanced diet is a good athlete
(5) None of these
54. Which of the following, if true, would refute the assumption of the argument above?
(1) Cindy, the basketball star, does not eat a well balanced diet, but she is a good athlete
(2) Ann wants to win, but she is not a good athlete
(3) Bob the accountant eats a well balanced diet, but he is not a good athlete.
(4) All the players on the Burros baseball team, eat a well balanced diet

Directions (Question Nos. 55 to 58): Study the information given below to answer the questions.
_ A is the father of two children, B and D, who are of different sexes
_ C is B’s spouse
_ E is the same sex as D
_ B and C have two children : F, who is the same sex as B and G, who is the same sex as C
_ E and mother H, who is married to L, is the sister of D’s mother M
_ E and E’s spouse I, have two children J and K, who are the same sex as I
Note: No persons have married more than once, and no children have been born out of wedlock. The only restrictions on marriage are that marriage to a sibling, to a direct descendant or to more than one person at the same time are forbidden.
55. F is:
(1) D’s niece or nephew (2) G’s brother
(3) G’s sister (4) B’s daughter (5) None of these
56. According to the rules D can marry:
(1) F, J or K (2) F only
(3) G only (4) J only (5) None of these
57. If L and H divorced, H could marry:
(I) D only (II) F (III) D or G
(1) II or III, but not both (2) I only
(3) II only (4) III only (5) None of these
58. If the generation of F and K’s parents and their siblings contains more females than males, which of the following must be true:
(1) K and G are the same sex
(2) There are more females than males in F and K’s generation
(3) J is male
(4) A is the same sex as D
(5) None of these
Directions (Question Nos. 59 to 60): These questions are independent of each other.
59. Two trains bound for New Delhi from Kanyakumari, leave Kanyakumari station within an interval of 30 minutes. For the first train there are 6
stops, while for the second train there are only 5 stops. At each stop, trains will stop for 15 minutes. Which of the following statements should be necessarily true:
(1) None of these
(2) During the entire journey to New Delhi the second train will always be behind the first train
(3) During the entire journey to New Delhi the second train will always be behind the first train if the first train stops at all the stations in which
the second train stops
(4) During the entire journey to New Delhi the second train will be ahead of the first train at some points, if the second train does not stop at three stations at which the first train stops
60. In an examination there are 90 questions. Each question carries 1 mark for the right answer, 0.5 for the wrong answer and 0.25 for the unanswered question. Ramesh answered all questions and got the number of wrong questions as half of the number of right questions. James answered only 80 questions but got equal marks as Ramesh. Then:
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Both Ramesh and James had the same number of correct answers
(3) James had more correct answers than Ramesh
(4) Ramesh had more correct answers than James
(5) None of these
*******************************
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS—REASONING FOUR
01. (5) 02. (3) 03. (3) 04. (3) 05. (1) 06. (2) 07. (3) 08. (4) 09. (4) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (5) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (5) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (4) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (5) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (5) 35. (2) 36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (5)
41. (2) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (5) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (1)
51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (4) 57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (3)

1. (5) All the others are spices.
2. (3) PR and NR.
3. (3) PORE; ROPE.
4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1)

12. (1) No relationship is stated between plants and
buds.

21-25. Start from left to right, first taking the first two numbers and then their resultant and then the third number that follows.
21. (5) 16 × 7 = 112; 112 – 25 = 87.
87 + 23 = 110; 110 ÷ 22 = 5.
22. (1) 97 + 45 = 142; 142 ÷ 71 = 2.
48 ÷ 8 = 6; 6 × 11 = 66.
66 + 2 = 68.
23. (2) 125 – 64 = 61; 61 + 33 = 94.
282 ÷ 94 = 3; 3 + 39 = 42.
24. (2) 84 ÷ 14 = 6; 6 × 13 = 78.
360 ÷ 24 = 15; 15 + 17 = 32.
78 – 32 = 46.
25. (4) 24 × 7 = 168; 168 – 81 = 87.
87 + 27 = 114; 114 ÷ 19 = 6.
Qs. 26-30.
Person A B C D E F G

Pro- Pharm- Prof- Artist –Engin- Lawy –Doc- Counc.
fession

City Bhub- Hyd- Mum- Bangl –Ahme- Chen Jaipur
aneshwar bai ore
Qn.60. (3)
Ramesh
Right answer 45 wrong answer 45 = 67 ½
James
Right answer 50 wrong 30 unanswered 10 = 67 ½


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CWE PO - REASONING FOUR Reviewed by sambasivan srinivasan on 2:28:00 AM Rating: 5

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