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CWE CLERKS PAPER ONE


In CWE Clerks examination you will have 50 questions in English, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, Computer Awareness, Banking related general awareness -- 250 questions.
Here a paper containing all these areas is given ./ Reasoning 40, Marketing -20(this is not included in CWE Clerks)  CA-20, GA-40,English -4, NA-40. =200 qns given for practice.  


TEST I-- REASONING

NOTE: (Qn. 1 – 40) If none of the given answers (1,2,3 or 4) is correct, please mark “(5) None of these.”


1. Find the sixth number:

1, 2, 6, 42, 1806, ?

1) 3623442 2) 3263442 3) 3326422 4)2443263
5) None of these
2. There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the house is in the middle?

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) E
5) None of these

3. If the letters in PRABA are coded as 27595 and THILAK are coded 36851, How can BHARATHI be coded?

1) 96575368 2) 57686535 3) 96855368 4) 37536689

4) If C= 3, CEP = 24, then what will be the value of HUX?

1) 47 2) 49 3) 51 4) 53

5. Mohan travels from a point to east 10 km and turned right and travelled 8 km and turned right travelled 6 km and turned right travelled 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?

1) 4 km 2) 6 km 3) 26 km 4) 22 km

Directions (Q 6-10): Below is given a question followed by four statements numbered I, II, III and IV. The question may (or may not) be answered using any or more of the given statements. You have to decide which of these statements are sufficient to answer the given question. Pick out the appropriate choices.
6. How is P related to Q?
STATEMENTS: I. Q is the father of P.
II. P is a bright student of the class.
III. P is a devoted husband.
IV. P is the brother of Y.
1. Only I suffices 2. I and III suffice.
3. I and either III or IV suffice 4. III and IV suffice.

7. On which day of the week did Atul reach Bombay?
STATEMENTS: I. Atul reached Bombay on 16th July.
II. Atul reached Bombay day before Sudha.
III. Sudha reached Bombay on a Friday.
iv. 25TH July is a Saturday.
1. I and IV suffice. 2. II and III suffice.
3. I, II and III suffice.
4. Either I and IV, or II and III suffice.

8. Among X, Y and Z who is the most intelligent?
STATEMENTS: I. X is more intelligent than Y.
II. Z is more intelligent than M.
III. M is more intelligent than N.
IV. X is more intelligent than N.
1. Only I suffices. 2. I and IV suffice.
3. I, II and IV suffice. 4. Still more data needed.

9. What is the age of Poornima?
STATEMENTS: I. Poornima is half as old as her mother.
II. Poornima was one-third as old as her mother was
8 years ago.
III. Poornima is 16 years younger than her mother.
IV. 12 years ago her mother was five times as old
as Poornima.
1. I and II suffice. 2. I and either II or III suffice.
3. Either I or II and either III or IV suffice. 4. Any two out of I, II, III,IV suffice.

10. Are some gardens wardens?
STATEMENTS: I. Some gardens are birds.
II. Some wardens are gardens.
III. All birds are wardens.
IV. No bird is a match box.
1. I and III suffice. 2. I and IV suffice. 3. II and IV suffice.
4. 4. Either II or I and III suffice.


Direction (Q 11 to 15): Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:
i) Eight doctors P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W visit a charitable dispensary run by Ram Mandir Trust every day except on a holiday i.e. Monday.
ii) Each doctor’s visit is of 1 hour from Tuesday to Sunday except Saturday. The timings are 9 AM to 1 PM and 2 PM to 6 PM. ! PM to 2 PM is lunch break.
iii) On Saturdays it is open only in the morning, i.e. 9 AM to 1 PM and on this day each doctor’s visit is of half an hour only.
iv) No other doctor visits the dispensary before Q and after U.
v) Doctor W comes immediately after lunch break and is followed by R.
vi) S comes in the same order as P in the afternoon session.

11. At what time is the visit of Doctor R over on Sunday?
1. 3 pm 2. 4pm 3. 5 pm 4. 1 pm
12. If lunch break and subsequent visit hours are reduced by 15 minutes, at what time is Doctor U expected to attend the dispensary?
1. 3.15 pm 2. 4.15 pm 3. 4.45 pm 4. 4 pm
13. At what time would the visit of T be over on Saturday?
1. 10 am 2. 11 am 3. Either 10 am or 11 am
4. Data inadequate.
14. Doctor P visits in between which of the following pairs of doctors?
1. R and W 2. S and T 3. U and W 4. R and U
15. S appears immediately after Doctor
1. T 2. V 3. Data inadequate 4. R

16. If it is possible to make a meaningful word using the second, fourth, fifth and seventh letters of the word CAPITALIST, write down the third letter of this word. If no meaningful word is possible, mark X as your answer. If more than one such word is possible, mark M as your answer.
1.S 2.M 3.X 4.I

17. You are given three primary colours red, blue and yellow. Now combine these colours and you get the secondary colours. Again, combine these colours (primary + secondary as well as secondary + secondary) and you get the tertiary colours. How many colours do you have in all now? (By combining is meant bringing two colours together)
1.27 2.15 3.18 4.21
18. Kamal’s son is the son-in-law of Achyut’s father. Rani is Achyut’s only sister. Kamal has only one grandson Pramod. How is Pramod related to Rani?
1. Father 2. Uncle 3. Son 4. Brother .
19. Arun is fatter than Ram who is thinner than Babu. Mani is thinner than Arun but fatter than Babu. Two other men are fatter than Arun. Who is the thinnest?
1. Arun 2. Ram 3. Babu 4. Mani

20. “Cricket” is related to “ball” as “badminton” is related to
1. racquet 2. Shuttlecock 3. net 4. court .
. Direction (Q 21-25): Study the following letter/number sequence and answer the questions that follow:

Z U V 5 A 1 E F G H I J 3 K 4 O P Q 6 T S R 2 D C B L M N W X Y

21. which letter or number if 18th to the right of the 26th letter or number from the right?
1. 2 2. D 3. C 4. B

22. If the second half of the series above was reversed what would be the answer to Q.11 above?
1. 2 2. D 3. C 4. B

23. What would be the answer to Q 11 if all the number of the sequence were dropped?
1. 2 2. D 3. C 4. B
24. What will come in place of the (?) question mark in the sequence below?
U1F 5FH 1HJ (?)
1. FJ4 2. FHK 3. FJ3 4. FJK
25. If only the letters from E to Q were written in the reverse order and other letters were left unaltered, which letter would be 10th to the right of the 32nd letter from the right?
1. K 2. L 3. M 4. 4

Directions. Q 26-29: Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
I. A factory holds a competition to decide “Best Performance” and “Most Popular” awards. Each worker gives marks out of 100 for ‘performance’ as well as ‘popularity’ for nominated six workers.
II. A,B, C, D, E and F are six workers who are given ranks separately for ‘performance’ and ‘popularity’ on the basis of marks obtained by them.
III. The ranking for ‘performance’ given in descending order on the basis of marks obtained by the six workers was such that ‘A’ was fifth and ‘F’ was first. ‘B’s marks on performance were slightly lower than’F’ but slightly better than ‘E’. ‘D’s rank in one case was sixth and in other it was fourth. D’s marks on performance were slightly better than A.
IV. When the ranks for ‘popularity’ were given in ascending order of their marks, with rank one for least popular and rank six for most popular. E’s rank remains unchanged but C’s rank was replaced by D and A replaced B’s rank.
Q.26. Who was most popular?
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. Data inadequate
Q.27. Who among the following is likely to have lower marks in performance as well as popularity?
1. B 2. A 3. E 4. D
Q.28. Who got lowest marks in performance?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. Data inadequate
Q.29. What rank ‘F” received on popularity?
1. One 2. Two 3. Six 4. Data inadequate

30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 
(1) 19 (2) 17 (3) 23 (4)27


Directions (Q 31-35): In each question below, there are two or three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

31. STATEMENTS: All birds are books.
All books are quarters.

CONCLUSIONS: I. All birds are quarters.
II. Some quarters are birds.
III. Some quarters are books.
IV. Some books are birds.
1. I, II and III follow. 2. II, III and IV follow.
3. I, III and IV follow. 4.. All follow.

32. STATEMENTS: Some books are novels.
All novels are dishes.
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some books are dishes.
II. Some books are not dishes.
III. Some dishes are novels.
IV. Some dishes are not novels.
1. Either I or II follows 2. Either III or IV follows.
3. Either I or II, and III or IV follow.
4. I and III follow.

33. STATEMENTS: Some desks are pens.
No pen is a paper.

CONCLUSIONS; I. Some desks are papers.
II. Some desks are not papers.
III. No desk is paper.
IV. No paper is a pen.
1. Only II and IV follow. 2. Either I or II follows.
3. Either I or III follows. 4. Only II and III follow.

34. STATEMENTS: All boys are girls.
No books are boys.
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some books are girls.
II. Some books are not girls.
III. Some girls are books.
IV. Some girls are not books.
1. Either I or II follows. 2. Either III or IV follows.
3. Only II and IV follow. 4. Either I or II and IV follow.


35. STATEMENTS: All books are pens.
All books are tigers.
CONCLUSIONS: I. Some pens are books.
II. Some pens are tigers.
III. Some tigers are pens.
IV. Some pens are not tigers.
1. Only I and III follow. 2. Only II and III follow.
3. Only I follows. 4. I, II and III follow.

36. How many pairs of letters are there in the word CIGARETTE which have as many letter between them as in the alphabet?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four

37. What will be the last letter of the word made of the first, sixth, ninth and tenth letters of the word SUPPLEMENT? If no such word can be made, give M as your answer. If more than one such word can be made, give P as your answer.
1. S 2. N 3. T 4. P.

38. If COLOUR is called MUSIC, MUSIC is called ENGINE, ENGINE is called CAR, CAR is called CARAVAN, CARAVAN is called TENT, and TENT is called IGLOO, then what do soldiers on battlefield live in?
1. CAR 2. CARAVAN 3. IGLOO 4. TENT

39. SONG is related to COMPOSER in the same way as FILM is related to:
1. ACTOR 2. DIRECTOR 3. PRODUCER 4. FINANCIER

40. If ANACONDA is written as ANADNADN in a certain code, how will MOVEMENT be written in the same code?
1. MOVFLENT 2. MOVFLTNE 3. VOMFLTNE 4. VOMDNTNE


**************************************************
TEST II
MARKETING AND COMPUTER AWARENESS


41. The traditional Marketing style involves
a) Telemarketing b) Indirect marketing c) Direct marketing
d) both a & b e) None of these.

42. Modern methods of Marketing include
a) Publicity on the net b) Tele Marketing c) Business through e-mail
d) all the above e) None of these.

43. A lead means
a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s Product
b) company c) farmer
d) both a & b e) None of these.

44. A call means
a) calling on friends b) to take telephone calls
c) calling on prospective customers
d) both a & b e) None of these.

45. Cross selling means
a) identifying customers needs
b) matching the products to customers needs c) Convincing the customers
d) both a & b e) None of these.

46. Innovation means
a) inspiration b) additional perquisites c) controlled mindset
d) both a & b e) None of these.

47. A true marketing mindset requires
a) active mindset b) Passive mindset c) controlled mindset
d) both a & b e) None of these.

48. Sales forecasting involves
a) sales planning and pricing b) distribution of channels c) Consumer tastes
d) all the above e) None of these.

49. A target market is
a) entire country b) entire city
c) that which consists of customers who need the identified product
d) both a & b e) None of these.

50. Marketing plan helps in
a) better lead generation b) better customers service c) better systems
d) both a & b e) None of these.

51. Market information means
a) knowledge of shops b) knowledge of places
c) knowledge of customer profile and product mix
d) both a & b e) None of these.

52. For effective marketing, the sales man should have which of these qualities
a) Creativity b) team spirit and motivation c) effective communication skills d) all the above e) None of these.

53. Which Indian Company has the largest market capitalization?
a) ONGC b) Reliance c) Infosys d) Satyam
e) None of these.

54. What market philosophy best expresses laissez faire
a) Fiscal restraint b) priming the pump c) caveat emptor
d) Supply and demand e) None of these.

55. The concept that consumers will favour those products which offer maximum quality performance and features and asks for continuous product improvement is
a) Marketing concept b) product concept c) production concept
d) both a & b e) None of these.
56. Sales Promotion
a) A must for competitive advantage b) compulsory
c) Waste of time
d) both a & b e) None of these.

57. Oligopoly is a market organization in which there are
a) No sellers b) few buyers c) few sellers
d) both a & b e) None of these.

58. In monopoly there are
a) Are few sellers b) is one seller c) are many sellers
d) both a & b e) None of these.

59. “A monopolist is a market with one seller” is given by
a) P C Dooley b) A J Braff c) Letwitch Observes
d) both a & b e) None of these.

60. Which of the following is not the factor of production?
a) Land b) labour c) capital d) entrepreneur
e) None of these.

61. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?
a. Application, Session, Presentation b. Physical, Transport, Data Link, Network
c. Data Link, Physical, Network d. Session, data Link, Physical
e. None of these
62. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical pieces of the database: data block, table space, extent, segment.
a. Table space, segment, extent, data block b. Data block, segment, extent, table space c. Segment, extent, data block, table space d. Data block, extent, segment, tables space e. None of these
63. Where are cookies stored?
a. On the server b. In web.xml c. On the client d. In HTML e. None of these
64. How is power supplied to a low power USB device?
a. Through a power cable b. From an external power supply
c. Directly from the computer’s power supply d. Through the USB cable
e. None of these
65. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
a. The type of drivers that come with the mouse
b. The length of the mouse cord
c. The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
d. The number of button the mouse is equipped with
e. None of these
66. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called …
a. Metasearch engines b. Web crawlers c. Spiders
d. Hits e. None of these
67. You are planning on using a single network that supports 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be the most efficient?
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D e. Class E
68. Which of the following options is not a JSP implicit object?
a. Out b. In c. Response d. Page e. None of these
69. Oracle, which statement is true about segments?
a. Each table has its own segment
b. A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered
c. An index segment is created every time a table is created
d. A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated
d. None of these
70. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except ….
a. Each computer must have a network card
b. There must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
c. There must be at least one connecting device
d. Each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
e. None of these
71. Which of the following could be legitimate Media Access Control address
a. 192.168.254.3 b. 3FA2.4756.F9A3 c. A5514
d. C1.3A.77.5B e. None of these
72. The term hypertext means …..
a. Non-sequential writing b. Hypermedia c. Blinking text d. Text with heavy formatting e. None of these
73. You receive an e-mail that informs you that a terrible virus has been unleashed on the internet and that you should warn all the people in your Address Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
a. A virus hoax b. A filter c. a spam d. A virus e. A worm
74. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography …. Symmetric keys are needed
a. 190 b. 200 c. 20 d. 19 e. 210
75. What should you do as soon as you have successfully created the data base and the data dictionary?
a. Open the database for users to start adding data
b. Start adding a bunch of tablespace to allow users to use
c. Leave it running for a few days to make sure that nothing bad is going to happen.
d. Shut it down and take cold backup
e. None of these
76. Which of the following is the default mask of a class A IP address?
a. 255.0.0.255 b. 255.255.0.0. c. 255.0.0.0.
d. 255.255.255.0 e. None of these
77. What is Internet 2?
a. a new type off cabling system for Wide Area Networks
b. A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
c. A new standard for Internet browsers
d. An association to develop advanced Internet technology
e. None of these
78. Which of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?
a. ServletRequest b. HttpServletRequest c. ServletResponse d. HttpServletResponse e. None of these
79. If you wanted to locate the hardware address to a local device, which protocol would you use?
a. ARP b. RARP c. ICMP d. PING e. PONG
80. In Oracle, which tablespace is the minimum required when creating a new database?
a. Undo tablespace b. Temporary tablespace c. System tablespace d. Users tablespace e. None of these



******
TEST III

GENERAL AWARENESS
NOTE: (Qn.81-120)If none of the given answers (1,2,3 or 4) is correct, please mark “5 – None of these”.

81. Name the India actor who has been roped in as the brand ambassador for UEFA European Foot ball Championship 2008.
1) Akshay Kumar 2) Shah Rukh Khan 3) John Abraham
4) Aamir Khan

82. India has divided its 7500 km long coastline into how many zones to conserve its biodiversity?
1) Seven 2) Six 3) Four 4) Three


83. Name the second satellite of Galileo Naviagation System which was recently launched by Russia.
1) Galileo-II 2) Giove B 3) Galileo A 4) Giove-II


84. Who has appointed as the new President of Taiwan?
1) Chen Shuibian 2) Ma Ying-Jeou 3) Vincent Siew
4) None of these

85. Which of the following countries has topped the list of world’s most peaceful country?
1) Denmark 2) Norway 3) France 4) Iceland

86. Montek Singh Ahluwalia has been conferred the honorary degree of ‘Doctor of Civil Law’ by which university?
1) Oxford University 2) University of Delhi 3) Cambridge University
4) Pennsylvania University

87. Who along with Azim Hasham Premji N.R. Naryanmurthy have been listed among the world’s top outsourcing billionaires by Forbes Magazine?
1) Nandan Nilekani 2) Senapathy Gopalakrishnan 3) Shiv Nadar
4) All of these

88. Name the Indian Bhangra Singer who has been honoured with most excellent order of the British Empire by Queen Elizabeth II.
1) Daler Mehndi 2) Malkit Singh 3) Gurdasmann
4) Apache Indian

89. What is the Bank Rate now? (12.09.2009)

1) 6% 2) 5% 3) 4% 4) 9%

90. What is Cash reserve ratio now? (12.09.2009)

1) 5.% 2) 9% 3) 10% 4) 2%

91. Brickfielder, Khamsin and Harmattan are the examples of…
1) hot winds
2) cold winds
3) trade winds
4) planetary winds
92. The world-famous Khajuraho temples were built by the rulers of…
1) Gupta dynasty
2) Chandela dynasty
3) Pallava dynasty
4) Chola dynasty
93. The world’s first Earth Summit took place in the year…
1) 1988
2) 1990
3) 1992
4) 1994
94. Dilli Chalo is the famous call that you would associate with …
1) Lal Bahadur Shastri
2) Acharya Binoba Bhave
3) Subhash Chandra Bose
4) Bhagat Singh
95. World Consumer Day is celebrated throughout the world on …
1) February 22
2) March 15
3) April 8
4) May 11
96. The freezing point of water is …
1) Zero K
2) 273.15 K
3) 313.16 K
4) 474.15 K
97. Which country’s constitution is the source of the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India?
1) The UK
2) Ireland
3) The US
4) Former Soviet Union
98. According to the latest census 2001, this state is the least populous state of Indi1) Can you identify the name of the state from the given options?
1) Goa
2) Arunachal Pradesh
3) Sikkim
4) Manipur
99. Which of the following is the smallest country of the world?
1) Tuvalu
2) Vatican
3) Nauru
4) Kuwait
100. The layer nearest to the earth’s atmosphere is …
1) Mesosphere
2) Ionosphere
3) Troposphere
4) Stratosphere
101. Zulu is the name of the tribe that belongs to …
1) Australia
2) New Zealand
3) South Africa
4) Indonesia
102. A normal human being has … chromosomes in all.
1) 42
2) 44
3) 46
4) 48
103. Utigard, Ribbon and Roraima are the names of the famous…
1) Volcanos
2) Waterfalls
3) Mountains
4) Lakes
104. Ain-e-Akbari, that gives the account of Akbar’s reign, was written by…
1) Amir Khusro
2) Firdausi
3) Abul Fazal
4) Badauni
105. This Indian state is the largest producer of rubber. Identify it from the given options.
1) Karnataka
2) Kerala
3) Tamil Nadu
4) Andhra Pradesh
106. ‘Bogey’ and ‘Fore’ are the terms that you would associate with
1) Chess
2) Snooker
3) Golf
4) Billiards
107. Khadar and Bhangar are the two types of…
1) Black Soil
2) Alluvial Soil
3) Red Soil
4) Laterite Soil
108. The first person to walk in Space was …
1) Neil Armstrong
2) Yuri Gagarin
3) AA Leonov
4) Edwin Eldrin
109. Where would you find Buland Jarwaza - the highest gateway in India?
1) Bihar
2) Punjab
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Madhya Pradesh
110. ‘Gambit’ is a term that you would associate with…
1) Hockey
2) Cricket
3) Chess
4) Football
111. Indica is the name of a famous work of …
1) AO Hume
2) Megasthenese
3) Thomas Roe
4) None of these
112. She is the first lady President of the world Can you identify her from the given options?
1) Srimavo Bandaranaike
2) Barbara 3) Harris
3) Maria Estella Peron
4) Junko Taibei
113. The main source of Indian philosophy is contained within the …
1) Vedas
2) Brahmanas
3) Puranas
4) Upanishads
114. Discovery of India is a famous book written by …
1) Mahatma Gandhi
2) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
3) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
115. The largest Hindu complex outside India, Angkor Vat in Cambodia, is dedicated to …
1) Lord Shiva
2) Lord Brahma
3) Lord Vishnu
4) Lord Rama
116. FICCI refers to
1) Federation of Indian chambers of Commerce and Industry
2) Federal Industrial chamber of commerce in India
3) Federation of Industrial Chamber of commerce in India
4) Fellow of Industrial chamber of commerce and Industry.

117. WTO headquarters is located in
1) New York 2) Geneva 3) Brussels 4) New Delhi

118. Which of the following is not considered a direct tax?
1) Octroi 2) Income Tax 3) Corporate tax 4) Wealth Tax

119. Which of the following years is known as the “year of great divide” in terms of population growth in India?

1) 1911 2) 1921 3) 1931 4) 1951

120. The committee on capital account convertibility was headed by
1) Dr. C Rangarajan 2) S S Tarapore

3) M Narasimham 4) S Venkitaramanan
************************

TEST IV

NUMERICAL ABILITY

NOTE: (Qn.121-160)If none of the given answers (1,2,3 or 4) is correct, please mark “5 – None of these”.



121. Which of the following means 5 x + 7 = 17?

  1. 7 more than 5 times a number is 17.
  2. 5 more than 7 times a number is 17
  3. 7 less than 5 times a number si 17
  4. 12 times a number is 17.

122. 3 hours 20 minutes less 1 hour 48 minutes =

1) 5 hours 48 minutes. 2) 4 hours 8 minutes
3) 2 hours 28 minutes 4) 1 hour 32 minutes.

123. What is the estimated product when 157 and 817 are rounded to the nearest hundred and multiplied?

1)160,000 2) 180,000 3) 16,000 4) 80,000

124. Rju’s horse, Spike, can run 3 times faster than Varun’s horse, Muffin. The best simplification of this problem would be written

1) M divided by 3 = 2 2) S = M - 2
3) M = S + 3 4) S = M x 3

125. To increase a number ‘n’ by 35%, it is sufficient to multiply it by

1) 1.35 2) 135 3) 0.35 4) 3

126. Which of the following lies between 1/3 and 2/3?

1) ¾ 2) ½ 3) 4/3 4) 3/8

127. A sum of Rs.4000 is lent in two parts, one at 8% simple interest and the other at 10% simple interest. If the interest is Rs.352, the sum lent at 8% is:
1) Rs.1600 2) Rs.2400 3) Rs.1800 4) Rs.2800
128. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:
1) 640kg 2) 650kg 3) 600kg 4) 400kg
129. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 4 : 3 and 2 : 3. In what ratio must these mixtures be mixed to form a new mixture containing half milk and half water?
1) 7 : 5 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 6 : 5
130. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The quantity of whisky replace is:
1) 2) 3) 4)
131. The price of cooking oil has increased by 25%. The percentage of reduction that a family should effect in the use of cooking oil so as not to increase the expenditure on this account is:

1) 25%. 2) 30%. 3) 20%. 4) 15%.

132. 4598 is 95% of ?

1) 4800. 2) 4850. 3) 4840. 4) None.

133. In an organization, 40% of the employees are matriculates. 50% of the remaining are graduates and the remaining 180 are post-graduates. How many employees are graduates?

1) 360. 2) 240. 3) 300. 4) 180.

134. If 405 of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper?

1) 10%. 2) 15%. 3) 20%. 4) 25%.


135. By selling a motorcycle for Rs.22600 a person gains 13%, what was his gain?

1) Rs.600. 2) Rs.2936. 3) Rs.2600. 4) Data inadequate.

136. A shopkeeper bought locks at the rate of 8 locks for Rs.34 and sold them at 12 locks for Rs.57. the number of locks he should sell to have a profit of Rs.900 is:

1) 1400. 2) 1600. 3) 1800. 4) 2000.

137. A shopkeeper earns 15% profit on a shirt even after allowing 31% discount on the list price. If the list price is Rs.125, then the cost price of the shirt is:

1) Rs.87. 2) Rs.80. 3) Rs.75. 4) Rs.69.

138. Loss incurred by selling a bicycle for rs.895 is equal to the profit earned by selling it for Rs.955. what is the loss/profit in this case?

1) Rs.45. 2) Rs.30. 3) Rs.75. 4) Cannot be determined.


139. A train X starts from place at the speed of 50 km/hr. After one hour, another train Y starts from the same place at the speed of 70 km/hr. After how much time will Y cross X?
1) 3 hrs. 2) 2¾ hrs. 3) 3½ hrs. 4) 2¼ hrs.
140. A person travels equal distance with speeds of 3 km/hr, 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is:

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

141. A train covers a distance between station A and station B in 45 minutes. If the speed of the train is reduced by 5 km/hr, then the same distance is covered in 48 minutes. What is the distance between the stations A and B?

1) 60km. 2) 64km. 3) 80km. 4) 55km.

142. Which of the following is the fastest?

1) 25 m/sec. 2) 1500 m/min. 3) 90 km/hr. 4) None.


143. A boat moves upstream at the rate of 1km in 10 minutes and downstream at the rate of 1 km in 6 minutes. The speed of the current is:
1. 1 km/hr. 2. 1.5 km/hr. 3. 2 km/hr. 4. 2.5 km/hr.
144. River is running at 2kmph. If a man takes twice as long to row up as to row down the river, the rate of the man in still water is:
1. 6 km/hr. 2. 4 km/hr. 3. 10 km/hr. 4. 8 km/hr.
145. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is:
1. 1 km/hr. 2. 1.8 km/hr. 3 3.5 km/hr. 4. 1.5 km/hr.
146. The current of stream runs at 1kmph. A motorboat goes 35 km upstream and back again to the starting point in 12 hours. The speed of the motorboat in still water is:
1. 6 km/hr. 2 7 km/hr. 3. 8 km/hr. 4. 8.5 km/hr.


147. A train 125m long passes a man running at 5kmph in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
1. 50km/hr. 2. 45km/hr. 3. 55km/hr. 4.54km/hr.
148. A train 110m long passes a man, running at 6kmph in the direction opposite to that of the train, in 6 seconds. The speed of the train is:
1. 60km/hr. 2. 66km/hr. 3. 54km/hr. 4. 72km/hr.
149. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 65kmph and 45kmph. The faster train crosses a man in slower train in 18 seconds. The length of the faster train is:
1. 120m. 2. 180m. 3. 100m. 4. 145m.
150. A train 108m long moving at a speed of 50km/hr crosses a train 112m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is:
1. 48kmph. 2. 54kmph. 3. 66kmph. 4.82kmph.
151. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
152. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
153. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
154. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
155.  (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
156. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
157. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1951.11
(5) None of these
158. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
159. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
160. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these


************************
TEST V

English

Directions (Q. 161-165) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow


Although drinking, water primary health care and housing are subjects which fall under the purview of the State Governments, the Central Government also bears a responsibility to ensure that these basic human needs of every citizen are satisfied.

161. According to the passage, drinking water
1. is no more a problem
2. should be taken away from the State Governments
3. is a basic need
4. is a responsible subject
5. None of these


162. Which of the following falls under the purview of the Central Government?
1) drinking water 2) primary health care
3) housing 4) social welfare
5) None of these


163. What kind of a role is the Central Government, according to the passage, expected to play?
1) primary 2) guiding 3) supporting 4) apathetic
5) None of these


164. What comment is being made on the role being played by the State Governments in satisfying basic human needs?
  1. The State Governments are not fulfilling their responsibility
  2. They deliberately ignore basic human needs
  3. They do not co-ordinate with the Central Govt. properly
  4. No comment is being made 5) None of these.

165. The author wants that
  1. the State Governments should exempted from its burdens
  2. no excuses remain in the well-being of the people
  3. primary health care should be given lesser attention to
  4. the Central Government should interfere with what the State Governments do.
  5. None of these.


Directions (Q. 166-175): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

The end of a 166 summer 167 the onset of 168 clouds, lightning and 169 rains. Dark, nimbus clouds 170 over the horizon set the 171 for the season. And its temper is further unfolded into 172 of rhythmic raindrops and luxuriant, 173 foliages. The accumulative impression of the 174 is ‘shringar bhaav’ manifested in a 175 ragas of romantic mood.

166. 1) scorching 2) drain 3) sizzling 4) hot 5) None of these

167. 1) promises 2) springs 3) idolizes 4) heralds 5) None of these

168. 1) luminous 2) thundering 3) dark 4) plutonic 5) None of these

169. 1) incessant 2) drizzling 3) lovely 4) soothing 5) None of these

170. 1) appearing 2) culminating 3) hovering 4) spreading 5) None of these

171. 1) beginning 2) tone 3) pace 4) life 5) None of these

172. 1) sonority 2) sound 3) rhythm 4) dripping 5) None of these
173. 1) green 2) sweet 3) ambrosial 4) luscious 5) None of these

174. 1) atmosphere 2) wind 3) region 4) ambience 5) None of these

175. 1) hundred 2) haunting 3) crooning 4) myriad 5) None of these



Directions (Q. 176-180): In each question below, fill in the blanks with the correct choices.

176. The person was very gentle when he mentioned his friends, but he was bitter and even ________ when he discussed people who ________ him.
1) laconic, infuriated 2) acerbic, irritated 3) remorseful, encourage
4) militant, distressed 5) None of these

177. Although he did not consider himself a/an __________ he felt that the inconsistencies in Kiran’s story __________ a certain degree of incredulity on his part.
1) charlatan, dignified 2) optimist, intimated 3) skeptic, warranted
4) hypocrite, demonstrated 5) None of these

178. Not only the _________ are fooled by propaganda; we can all be misled if we are not __________-
1) gullible, wary 2) ignorant, cynical 3) fatuous, intelligent
4) illiterate, mature 5) None of these

179. The shortcomings of Mr. Sinha are _________ by his ____________ in explaining financial complexity and the sheer importance of this text.
1) offset, clarity 2) alleviated, ineptitude 3) magnified, precision
4) mitigated, incompetence 5) None of these

180. No one can be a great thinker who does not ___________ that as a thinker it is his first duty to follow his ____________ to whatever conclusions it may lead
1) understand, mind 2) comprehend, brain 3) believe, zeal
4) realize, intellect 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 181-188): Read each sentence to find out in which part of the sentence there is an error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any) If there is no error mark (5)

181. A nation which (1)/ keeps its producers of wealth (2)/ deprived and destitute (3)/ loses their raison d’etre (4)/ 5) No error

182. Easy resort to force (1) does not ensure national solidarity (2)/ it paves very steadily and inexorably (3)/ the way of fragmentation and alienation (4)/ 5) No error

183. To reverse this drift to disaster (1)/ and rejecting its justification (2)/ popular struggles across the nation (3)/ will have to be launched (4)/ 5) No error.

184. In times ahead (1)/ the nation and the world (2)/ will look up to them for scruples (3)/ and sensitivities characterizing India (4)/ 5) No error.

185.The second major thesis (1)/ Identifying the motive force (2)/ of socio-historic change is (3) the contradiction between classes. (4)/ 5) No error.

186. Defenders of Kautsky and Trotsky would argue that (1)/ if they could be faulted for something (2)/ it is for excessive fidelity to Marx (3). Who clearly spoke of socialism as arising on the basis of advanced capitalism. (4)/
5) No error.

187. Stalin’s particular merit were that (1)/he not merely admitted (2),. But cautioned of and indeed drew attention (3)/ to the possibility of such a contradiction (4)/ 5) No error.

188. The question then is (1)/why it is that (2)/ the Marxists of these countries (3)/ failed to see this (4)/ No error

Direction (Q. 189-195) Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the sentence correctly and meaningfully.

189. It is really correct that they were unable to _________ the growing problem.
1) categorise 2) discern 3) see 4) identify 5) None of these

190. The cost of ………is rising rapidly in this city.
1) being 2) existing 3) surviving 4) living 5) None of these

191. This __________ on the problems of socialism closely mirrored that of Walt Rostow and about the Third World!
1) view 2) outlook 3) face 4) approach 5) None of these

192. They failed to comprehend the __________ importance of information Technology, of information and the dawning of the information age, which bourgeois thinkers such as Marshall McLuhan had focused on as early as 1962.
1) heavy 2) crucial 3) lively 4) remedial 5) None of these

193. The Scientific and Technological Revolution, economic growth and even the forces of production were understood by the Soviet and Sovietised Marxists in exclusively tangible, physical, material, quantifiable ____________.
1) aspects 2) measures 3) elements 4) terms 5) None of these

194. Intelligent materialism has more in ___________ with intelligent idealism than with mechanistic materialism.
1) common 2) tow 3) keeping 4) share 5) None of these

195. The Soviet advances in space and military technology could not break ___________ a certain ceiling
1) beyond 2) through 3) above 4) after 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 196-200) In each of the following questions a certain expressions is given. Below the expression four words are given numbered (1), (2), (3), and (4) . Find the correct word for each expression. If nothing suits mark (5) None of these.

196. A general agreement on social behaviour by implicit consent of the majority
1) norm 2) ritual 3) tradition 4) convention
5) None of these

197. Medieval association of craftsmen or merchants
1) chamber 2) society 3) pack 4) guild 5) None of these


198. A story handed down from the past
1) legend 2) history 3) myth 4) narration 5) None of these

199. Trees that bear cones
1) arboreal 2) marsupial 3) tundra 4) coniferous 5) None of these

200. Vegetable organism living on dead organic matter.
1) zooplankton 2) bacteriophage 3) thallophyte 4) saprophyte
5) None of these

******************



ANSWERS

TEST OF REASONING
1.2 2.2 3.1 4.4 5.5 6.3 7.4 8.4 9.4 10.4

11.2 12.3 13.3 14.4 15.3 16.4 17.3 18.3 19.2 20.2

21.3 22.2 23.3 24.4 25.1 26.4 27.4 28.3 29.4 30. 4

31.4 32.4 33.1 34.4 35.4 36.2 37.4 38.3 39.2 40.3

MARKETING AND COMPUTER AWARENESS

41.C 42.D 43.A 44.C 45.B 46.C 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.A

51.C 52.D 53.B 54.C 55.A 56.A 57.C 58.B 59.A 60.D

61. c 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. e 69. a 70. e

71. e 72. a 73. e 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. d 78. b 79. a 20. c


GENERAL AWARENESS

81.3 82.3 83.2 84.2 85.4 86.1 87.4 88.2 89.1 90.1

91.1 92.2 93.3 94.3 95.2 96.2 97.3 98.3 99.2 100.3

101.3 102.3 103.2 104.3 105.2 106.3 107.2 108.3 109.3 110.3

111.2 112.3 113.4 114.2 115.3 116.1 117.2 118.4 119.2 120.2

NUMERICAL ABILITY
121.1 122.4 123.1 124.4 125.1 126.2 127.2 128.3 129.1 130.2

131.3 132.3 133.4 134.3 135.3 136.3 137.3 138.2 139.3 140.2

141.1 142.4 143.3 144.1 145.1 146.1 147.1 148.1 149.3 150.4

151.3 152.2 153.1 154.1 155.1 156.3 157.4 158.4 159.2 160.1

ENGLISH

161.3 162.4 163.2 164.4 165.2 166.3 167.4 168.2 169.4 170.3

171.2 172.1 173.4 174.4 175.4 176.2 177.3 178.1 179.1 180.5

181.4 182.4 183.2 184.1 185.3 186.2 187.1 188.2 189.2 190.4

191.2 192.2 193.4 194.1 195.2 196.4 197.4 198.1 199.4 200.4

*******************************************




EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. 1 x 1 + 1, 2 x 2 + 2, 6 x 6 + 6, same way 3263442
5.  (5) none of these,  Draw the diagram and apply pythogoras theorem
sq.root of 4 square plus 3 square =  5.  

Qn.6. 3; From I it’s obvious that P is either a son or a daughter of Q. All we now need to know is the sex of P. This can be known from either III (a husband is a male) or IV (a brother is a male).
Qn.7. 5; From I we know that Atul reaches on 16th July. Now all we need to know is the day on 16th July. But if we know the day of any other date (25th July e.g.) we can find the day on 16th July. Alternatively, from III and II we can easily friend that Atul reached Bombay on a Thursday.
Qn.8. 5 From I, X > Y.
From II, Z > M
From III, M > N
From IV, X > N.
We can’t compare X and Z by this data.
Qn.9 . 4; There are two unknowns (Sudha’s age and her mother’s age). We see that the two unknowns can be found if we have two information. Hence picking any two information from I, II, III and IV will suffice.
Qn.10. 4; Can be answered by II alone. Or else, I and III give Some gardens are wardens as conclusion by rule I + A = I of syllogism

Qn 11 to 15: I. From (ii) and (iii) we conclude that Tuesday to Sunday we have 8 hours work with each of the 8 doctors visiting for 1 hour each while on a Saturday we have 4 hours work with each doctor visiting for ½ hour each.
II. Let us now find the order of the doctors. From (iv) it is obvious that Q is the first and U is the eight doctor. From (v) it is obvious that W is the first after lunch, i.e. fifth in the overall order while R is the sixth. Now from (vi) we know that P comes in the afternoon session. So P must be the seventh (third in the afternoon) because fifth, sixth and eight positions are already occupied by W, R and U, respectively. Now S comes in the same order as P in afternoon session. S must be the third in the morning session. That we have the order (Q, ?, S, ?, W, R, P, U)
(The ? marks are occupied by T or V)
11. 2. On a Sunday, R is second after lunch. So, his visit will be over at 4 PM.
12. 3. If lunch is reduced by 15 minutes, lunch hour finishes at 1.45 PM. 1st visit after lunch finishes after next 45 minutes i.e. at 2.30 pm, second after next 45 i.e. at 3.15 pm, third after next 45 i.e. at 4.00 pm and forth i.e. visit of U at 4.45 pm.
13. 3. Visits are of half an hour on Saturday. Since T is either the second or the fourth to make his visit, his visit will end at O.00 am + 2 X 30 minutes or 9.00 am + 4 X 30 minutes. i.e., 10 or 11AM.
14. 4
15. 3 . S may be preceded by either T or V.

Qn. 16. 4; The letters are A, I, T and the word formed by them is TAIL.
Qn. 20. 2. Just as a ball moves all over the cricket filed, similarly a shuttlecock moves all over the badminton court.
Qn.21. 3 Quick Method: 18th letter to the right of the 26th letter from right = 26-18 = 8th letter from right = C.
Qn.22. 2. Quick Method: Now, 8th letter from right when second half (only) is reversed = (16-8)+1 = 9th letter from right when the series is not reversed. This is D.
Qn.23. 3; Counting 8th letter from the right we don’t come across any number, so there won’t be any effect of dropping numbers from the sequence.
Qn.24. 4; F or U1F goes to middle in 5FH. So, J from IHJ goes to middle in FJK. 1from U1F goes to first in 1HJ. So F from 5FH goes to first in FJK. Finally, K is at a gap of 2 letters from J; so K goes to third in FJK.

For Qns.26 to 29: The given data, can be tabulated as given below:

Name Performance Order Popularity Order

A V II
B II --
C VI --
D IV VI
E III III
F I --



Qn.31. 4; Conclusion II follows from conclusion I itself. Conclusion III follows directly from the second statement while IV follows directly from the first.
Qn.32. 4; Conclusion III follows directly from the second statement.
Qn.33. 1; Conclusion II follows. Conclusion IV follows directly from the second statement by converting it
.
Qn.34. 4; First change the order of the sentences to align them:
No books are boys (Type E)
All boys are girls (Type A)
E + A = O reversed, we have: ‘Some girls are not books’ as conclusion. Hence, IV follows. Further, conclusions I and II make a complementary pair; hence either of them must be true.
Qn.35. 4; Conclusion I follows directly from the first statement (on conversion).

Qn. 36. 2 C I G A R E T T E --- I & E, R & T

Qn.37. 4; The letters are S, E, N and T which may be made into the words SENT, NEST, NETS AND TENS.

Qn.38. 3; Soldiers usually live in barracks, but in a battlefield they live in tents. Here tent is called igloo.

Qn.39. 2; The composer scores music for a song. In other words, he directs the song and is therefore also called music director.

Qn.40. 3; The first three letters are written in reverse order and so are the last three. The fourth letter moves one-step ahead and fifth one step backward



NUMERICAL ABILITY
127. Total interest on Rs.4000 in 1 yer = Rs.352
Average rate =
By the rule of allegation, we have:
128.
129. Milk in 1 litre of A
Milk in 1 litre of B
Milk in 1 litre of final mix.
C. P. of 1 litre of A
C. P. of 1 litre of B
Mean Price
By the rule of allegation:


130.


131. 3). Required reduction = r ´ 100 % = 25 ´ 100 = 20%
(100 + r) 125
132. (3). Let 95% of x = 4598

Then x = 4598 ´ 100 = 4840.
95

133. (4). Matriculates = 40 x = 2x
100 5

Remaining = x - 2x = 3x
  1. 5



Graduates = 50 ´ 3x = 3x
100 5 10

\ 2x + 3x + 180 = x Þ x - 7x 180 Þ x = 600
5 10 10

\ Graduates = 3 ´ 600 = 180
10

134. (3). n(A) = 40, n(B) = 50, n(A B) = 10
n( A B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A Ç B) = (40 + 50 - 10) = 80
n(not A and not B) = n(AC Ç BC) = n(A È B)C = 100 – n (A È B) = (100 – 80) = 20

135. (3). S.P. = Rs.22600, gain = 13%.

C.P. = 100 ´ 22600 = 20000
113

\ Gain = Rs.(22600 – 20000) = Rs.2600

136. (3). Suppose he purchased 24 locks (L.C.M. of 8 and 12)

C.P. = 34 ´ 24 = 102, S.P. = 57 ´ 24 = 114
8 12

To gain Rs.12, locks purchased = 24

To gain Rs.900, locks purchased = 24 ´ 900 = 1800
12
137. (3). Let C.P. be Rs.x. Then,
115 x = 69 x 125 Þ x = 75
100 100

138. (2). Let C.P. be Rs.x. Then,
(x – 895) = (955 – x) Þ x = 925
\ Loss = Gain = (925 – 895) = 30

139. (3). Suppose they cross after x hours
Distance covered in Y in (x – 1) hours = distance covered by X in x hours
70 (x – 1) = 50 x Þ x = 3 ½

140. (2). x + x + x = 47 Þ 20x + 15x + 12x = 47 Þ x = 1
3 4 5 60

\ Total distance = ( 1 + 1 + 1) km = 3km
141. (1). Let the distance between A and B be x km

Speed = x = 4x km/hr
(45/60) 3

New speed 4x - 5 = 4x - 15 km/hr
3 3

\ 48 ´ (4x - 15) = x Þ 16x – 60 = 15x Þ x = 60
60 3

142. (4). 1500 m/min. = 1500 m/sec. = 25 m/sec
60
90 km/hr = 90 ´ 5 m/sec = 25m/sec.
18
So, all the given speeds are equal.


147. Speed of the train relative to man = [ 125 / 10 ] m/ sec
= [ 25 / 2] m / sec

[ 25 / 2 x 18 / 5 ] = 45 kmph.


148. Speed of the train relative to man = [ 110 / 6 ] m / sec

= [ 110 / 6 x 18 / 5 ] kmph = 66 kmph

Let the speed of the train be x kmph

Then relative speed = ( x + 6 ) kmph

X + 6 = 66 or x = 60 kmph.

150. Let the speed of the second train be x kmph


Relative speed = ( x + 50 ) kmph

= [ ( x + 50 ) x 5 / 18 ] m / sec

[ 250 + 5 x / 18 ] m / sec

Distance covered = (108 + 112) = 220m

220 / (250 + 5x/18) = 6

250 + 5x = 660 x = 82 kmph.
**************


ENGLISH


181. 4; Substitute ‘their’ by ‘its’ because ‘nation’ is being used as singular
182. 4; Replace ‘of’ by ‘to’
183. 2; ‘Rejecting’ should be replaced by infinitive ‘reject’ to keep it in tune with (1)
184. 1; Particular times are being talked about – the ones which lie ahead. So, (1) should be ‘In the times ahead’.
185. 3; ‘Socio-Historic’ should be replaced by ‘socio-historical’
186. 2; ‘Something’ should be replaced by ‘anything’. Note that it is the defenders who are talking about their faults. In the worst case, they might have to yield and then their line would be. “If at all we are at fault” or “If we can be faulted for anything”.
187. 1; substitute ‘were’ with ‘was’.

***********




CWE CLERKS PAPER ONE Reviewed by sambasivan srinivasan on 5:07:00 AM Rating: 5

2 comments:

Arun said...

Could you please explain the answer for question number 5.

Sambasivan.S said...

Arun. The answer has to be (5) None of these. I have altered the answer and given explanation also. thanks.

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