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Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a rich merchant who had four wives. He loved the fourth wife the most and adorned her with rich robes and treated her to delicacies. He took great care of her and gave her nothing but the best. He also loved the third wife very much. He was very proud of her and always wanted to show her off to his friends. However, the merchant was always in great fear that she might run away with some other men. He loved his second wife too. She was a very considerate person, always patient and in fact was the merchant’s confidant. Whenever the merchant faced some problems, he always turned to his second wife and she would always help him out and tide him through difficult times. Now, the merchant’s first wife was a very loyal partner and had made great contributions in maintaining his wealth and business as well taking care of the household. However, the merchant did not love the first wife and although she loved him deeply, he hardly took notice of her.
One day, the merchant fell ill. Before long, he knew that he was going to die soon. He thought of his luxurious life and told himself, “Now I have four wives with me. But when I die, I’ll be alone. How lonely I’ll be !” Thus, he asked the fourth wife, “I loved you most, endowed you with the finest clothing and showered great care over you. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No way !” replied the fourth wife and she walked away without another word. The answer cut like a sharp knife right into the merchant’s heart. The sad merchant then asked the third wife, “I have loved you so much for all my life. Now that I’m dying will you follow me and keep me company ?” “No !” replied the third wife, “Life is so good over here ! I’m going to remarry when you die !” The merchant’s heart sank and turned cold. He then asked the second wife. “I always turned to you for help and you’ve always helped me out. Now I need your help again. When I die, will you follow me and keep me company ?” “I’m sorry, I can’t help you out this time !” replied the second wife. “At the very most, I can only send you to your grave.” The answer came like a bolt of thunder and the merchant was devastated. Then a voice called out, “I’ll leave with you. I’ll follow you no matter where you go.” The merchant looked up and there was his first wife. She was so skinny, almost like she suffered from malnutition. Greatly grieved, the merchant said, “I should have taken much better care of you while I could have !”
Actually, we all have four wives in our lives. The fourth wife is our body. No matter how much time and effort we lavish in making it look good, it’ll leave us when we die. Our third wife is our possessions, status and wealth. When we die, they all go to others. The second wife is our family and friends. No matter how close they had been to us when we’re alive, the furthest they can stay by us is up to the grave. The first wife is in fact our soul, often neglected in our pursuit of material wealth and sensual pleasure. It is actually the only thing that follows us wherever we go. Perhaps it’s a good idea to cultivate and strengthen it now rather than to wait until we’re on our deathbed to lament.
1. What did the merchant want to do with his third wife ?
(A) To buy good clothes for her
(B) To give her away to his friends
(C) To show her off to his friends
(D) To share his problems with her
(E) None of these
2. What was the second wife’s quality ?
(A) She helped the merchant during tough times
(B) She helped the merchant in his business
(C) She made the merchant feel proud
(D) She contributed to the merchant’s wealth
(E) None of these
3. What does the phrase ‘cut like a sharp knife’ as used in the passage mean ?
(A) Injure
(B) Bleed
(C) Dangerous
(D) Hurt
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following is possibly NOT a characteristic of the first wife as given in the passage ?
(A) Caring
(B) Beautiful
(C) Thin
(D) Loyal
(E) All of the above are characteristics of the first wife
5. What fear did the merchant have about his third wife ?
(A) That she would kill him
(B) That she would not accompany him when he died
(C) That she would run away with all his money
(D) That she would not look beautiful anymore
(E) None of these
6. What explanation did the fourth wife give for not accompanying the merchant when he was dying ?
(A) She wanted more money
(B) She did not give any explanation
(C) She wanted to marry someone else after the merchant’s death
(D) She was afraid to go with him
(E) None of these
7. Why did the first wife offer to go with the merchant when he died ?
(A) Because she loved him
(B) Because she was afraid to stay alone
(C) Because she hated the other wives
(D) Because she was undernourished and was going to die anyway
(E) None of these
8. The author has compared the merchant’s fourth wife to our ………
(A) Soul
(B) Wealth
(C) Friends
(D) Status
(E) None of these
9. What does the author have to say about our soul ?
(A) That it is well taken care of
(B) That it can give us company only till our death
(C) That it has been ignored in the chase for worldly pleasures
(D) That it belongs to someone else after our death
(E) None of these
10. What does the phrase ‘like a bolt of thunder’ used in the passage mean ?
(A) like a very bright light
(B) like a pleasant feeling
(C) like a loud noise
(D) like a shock
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. adorned
(A) spent
(B) dressed
(C) tried
(D) carried
(E) necklace
12. showered 
(A) bestowed
(B) cleaned
(C) pleased
(D) bathed
(E) threw
13. lament
(A) fear
(B) tell
(C) grieve
(D) care
(E) forget
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. considerate
(A) ignorant
(B) lazy
(C) angry
(D) thoughtful
(E) insensitive
15. furthest
(A) longest
(B) closest
(C) greatest
(D) shortest
(E) wildest
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. I woke up early in the morning and had a steamer cup of coffee.
(A) has a steamer
(B) has a steaming
(C) had a steaming
(D) had a steam
(E) No correction required
17. Tired of being harassed by the goons, I finally called the police and complained—
(A) in being harassed
(B) of being harass
(C) in be harassed
(D) of be harass
(E) No correction required
18. A friendship founded on business is best than a business founded on friendship.
(A) is good than
(B) is better than
(C) is bestest than
(D) is better then
(E) No correction required
19. Right action cannot came out of nothing, it must be preceded by thought.
(A) come out of
(B) came out off
(C) come off
(D) coming out of
(E) No correction required
20. One of the base laws of nature is that adaptability is the price of survival.
(A) basis laws of
(B) basic law of
(C) base law of
(D) basic laws of
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. Opportunities (A) multiply (B) when they are seized (C) and die (D) when they are not. All correct (E)
22. He realized (A) he was alone (B) in the house and rushed (C) to bolt (D) all the doors and windows. All correct (E)
23. The information (A) provided (B) to the staff was not adecuate (C) and everyone retaliated. (D) All correct (E)
24. Worried (A) that he will fail in the exams, Satish stayed (B) up the whole kinght (C) and studied. (D) All correct (E)
25. Thomas could not cook (A) very well and thus had to stay (B) food from (C) a restaurant. (D) All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) She eased out something from her waist folds.
(2) Maganlal welcomed a customer early in the day.
(3) Once visible, Maganlal realized it was a pair of gold bangles.
(4) The woman carefully counted the money and then left.
(5) He took the bangles and placed some money in the woman’s palm.
(6) This customer was a peasant woman wearing a discoloured sari and old anklets.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Progress is impossible (A) / without change, and those (B) / who cannot change their minds (C) / cannot change nothing. (D) No error (E)
32. She was allergic (A) / to some medicines (B) / and informed (C) / the doctor about it. (D) No error (E)
33. He walked as faster (A) / as he could so that (B) / he would not (C) / miss the train to work. (D) No error (E)
34. She shared (A) / all her secrets with (B) / Suman as they had been (C) / friends with childhood. (D) No error (E)
35. Gautam did not care (A) / so many about (B) / anything else as much (C) / as he cared for his dog. (D) No error (E)
36. You cannot change (A) / people, but you (B) / can definitely (C) / change own. (D) No error (E)
37. Veena wanted to (A) / become a surgeon (B) / and worked very hardly (C) / to achieve this. (D) No error (E)
38. Krishna ran to the (A) / nearing grocery store to (B) / buy biscuits as his parents (C) / were expecting guests. (D) No error (E)
39. As soon so (A) / he came home, (B) / he showered and got (C) / ready to go out again. (D) No error (E)
40. She failed to remember (A) / that it was Rema’s birthday (B) / and did not buy (C) / a present for her. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
One of the good things that happened to me …(41)… in Patliputra, …(42)… the friendship of the farmer’s daughter. This nine year old girl …(43)… became very fond of me and her parents …(44)… her that she could keep me forever as her toy. She was very good at needlecraft and …(45)… clothes for her doll. In fact, on my first night there and …(46)… the rest of my stay in the farmer’s house, I slept in her doll’s cradle. That first night, they put the cradle on …(47)… of a shelf far away from the danger of rats. As I slowly got to learn their language, I was …(48)… to talk to the girl and let her know my needs and she was able to make me …(49)… comfortable. She made me seven shirts and was my teacher of the language. When I pointed to anything, she would …(50)… it by name, and soon I was able to talk easily with her.
41. (A) waiting
(B) truly
(C) till
(D) still
(E) while
42. (A) for
(B) was
(C) because
(D) is
(E) it
43. (A) soon
(B) had
(C) was
(D) has
(E) forever
44. (A) handled
(B) worried
(C) taught
(D) promised
(E) carried
45. (A) tore
(B) tearing
(C) making
(D) wore
(E) make
46. (A) to
(B) as
(C) for
(D) of
(E) if
47. (A) bottom
(B) top
(C) coating
(D) height
(E) wide
48. (A) possible
(B) happiness
(C) eagerly
(D) able
(E) request
49. (A) every
(B) thorough
(C) total
(D) high
(E) more
50. (A) call
(B) ask
(C) throw
(D) help
(E) hit



1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black (B) input      (C) output (D) word Processing   (E) None of these
2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt  with as a unit is a—
(A) disk (B) data     (C) file (D) floppy          (E) None of these
5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling (B) pushing           (C) downloading (D) transferring       (E) None of these
6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive (B) Keyboard  (C) Monitor (D) Printer           (E) None of these
7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching (B) Storing         (C) Executing (D) Decoding  (E) None of these
8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct
hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar (B) button            (C) dialog box (D) window    (E) None of these
11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer (B) menu  (C) icon (D) button     (E) None of these
12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug (B) debug      (C) cursor (D) icon      (E) None of these
13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or
descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
51. RAM stands for :
(A) Read Access Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Random Assigned Memory
(D) All of these

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
17. BIOS stands for :
(A) Basic Input Output System
(B) Basic Instruction Output System
(C) Basic Interface Output System
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory
of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage (B) output            (C) input (D) information       (E) None of these
19. Which part of the computer displays the work done?
(A) RAM (B) printer   (C) monitor (D) ROM (E) None of these
20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials (C)
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

21. How many options does a binary choice offer ?
(A) None (B) One  
(C) Two
(D) It depends on the amount of memory in the computer
(E) It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor
22. Data going into the computer is called—
(A) Output (B) Algorithm      (C) Input (D) Calculations      (E) Flowchart
23. How many values can be represented by a single byte ?
(A) 4 (B) 16    (C) 64 (D) 256            (E) 512
24. Transformation of input into output is performed            by—
(A) Peripherals (B) Memory   (C) Storage      (D) The Input-Output unit
(E) The CPU
25. Device drivers are— (C)
(A) Tiny power cords for external storage devices
(B) Experts who know how to maximize the performance of devices
(C) Small, special-purpose programs
(D) The innermost part of the operating system
(E) Substitutes for operating system
26. A collection of programs that controls how your computer system runs and processes
information is called—
(A) Operating system (B) Computer  (C) Office (D) Compiler         (E) Interpreter
27. Which of the following refers to a small, single site network ?
(A) LAN (B) DSL      (C) RAM (D) USB     (E) CPU
28. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—
(A) Mentor (B) Instructor       (C) Compiler (D) Program      (E) Debugger
29. If you receive an e-mail from someone you don’t know, what should you do ?
(A) Forward it to the police immediately
(B) Delete it without opening it
(C) Open it and respond to them saying you don’t know them
(D) Reply and ask them for their personal information
(E) Reply and tell them you want to keep in touch with them
30. Which of the following can handle most system functions that aren’t handled directly by the operating system ?
(A) Vertical-market applications         (B) Utilities (C) Algorithms
(D) Integrated software(E) Compilers
31. Microsoft Office is—
(A) Shareware
(B) Public-domain software
(C) Open-source software
(D) A vertical-market application
(E) An application suite
32. Computers connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can—
(A) Run faster
(B) Go on line
(C) Share information and/or share peripheral equipment
(D) E-mail (E) None of these
33. Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer ?
(A) RAM (B) DSL     (C) USB (D) LAN      (E) CPU
34. Information travels between components on the motherboard through—
(A) Flash memory (B) CMOS            (C) Bays (D) Buses     (E) Peripherals
35. One megabyte equals approximately—
(A) 1,000 bits (B) 1,000 bytes            (C) 1 million bytes (D) 1 million bits
(E) 2,000 bytes
36. When you are working on a document on a PC, where is the document temporarily stored?
(A) RAM (B) ROM                (C) The CPU (D) Flash memory         (E) The CD-ROM
37. How are data organized in a spreadsheet ?
(A) Lines and spaces
(B) Layers and planes
(C) Height and width
(D) Rows and columns
(E) None of these
38. Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled because tape is—
(A) A random-access medium
(B) A sequential-access medium
(C) A read-only medium
(D) Fragile and easily damaged
(E) An expensive storage medium
39. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the—
(A) Mouse (B) Logo   (C) Hand (D) Palm     (E) Cursor
40. When cutting and pasting, the item cut is temporarily stored in—
(A) ROM (B) Hard drive        (C) Diskette (D) Dashboard   (E) Clipboard
41. PARAM is an example of :
(A) Super computer (B) PC    (C) Laptop (D) PDA   (E) None of these
42. Who developed the analytical engine'?
(A) Jacquard loom (B) Charles Babbage(C) Shannon (D) IBM  (E) None of these
43. ENIAC stands for :
(A) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator
(B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
(C) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator
(D) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator
(E) None of these
44. First Generation of computer was based on which technology?
(A) Transistor (B) Vacuum Tube        (C) LSI (D) VLSI       (E) None of these
45. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of computer?
(A) Second Generation (B) Fourth Generation         
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Third Generation                  (E) All of the above
46. GUI stands for :
(A) Graphical User Interface
(B) Graph Use Interface
(C) Graphical Universal Interface
(D) All of these (E) None of these
47. The time taken by CPU to retrieve and interpret the instruction to be executed is called as :
(A) Instruction cycle (B) Fetch cycle (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) All of these
(E) None of these
48. Which of the following is responsible for all types of calculations?
(A) ALU (B) Control Unit     (C) Registers (D) BUS            (E) None of these
49. Internal memory in a CPU is nothing but :
(A) A set of registers (B) A set of ALU         (C) Microprocessor (D) BUS (E) None of these
50. Which of the following is permanent memory?
(A) SRAM (B) DRAM           (C) ROM (D) All of these      (E) None of these
NB. If none of the given answers is correct, please mark “e) none of these” as your answer.
1.There are 150 weights .Some are 1 kg weights and some are 2 kg weights. The sum of the weights is 260.What is the number of 1kg weights?
c) 86
d) 40
 2. A is driving on a highway when the police fines him for over speeding and exceeding
the limit by 10 km/hr. At the same time B is fined for over speeding by twice the                           amount by which A exceeded the limit. If he was driving at 35 km/hr what is the speed limit for the road?
        a)15 kmph      b)18 kmph            c)20 kmph       d)25 kmph
3.  Adhvaitth moves 3 kms east from his starting point . He then travels 5 kms north. From that point he moves 8 kms to the east.  He then travels towards south by 5 km. How far is A from his starting point?
     a)15kms           b) 11 kms             c)18 kms           d)21kms
4. A car travels 12 kms with a 4/5th filled tank. How far will the car travel with 1/3 filled
         a)   9 kms       b) 15 kms    c)5 kms           d) 18 kms
5. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 8. When 18 is added to the number, the
digits are reversed. Find the number?
            a) 35     b)40       c)53          d) 43
6. The cost of one pencil, two pens and four erasers is Rs.44 while the cost of five
pencils, four pens and two erasers is Rs.64.How much will three pencils, three pens and
three erasers cost?
a) 44                b)64                 c)54                 d)45
7. Fathers age is 5 times his son’s age. 4 years back the father was 9 times older than
son. Find the fathers’ present age.
a). 40 years      b)55 years        c)60 years        d)75 years
8. What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so
that it becomes equal to 1 : 2.
a) 5 should be added  b)10 should be subtracted
c) 10 should be added            d)None of these
9. What is the 12th term of the series 2, 5, 8, ….
a)20     b)33     c)45     d) 35
10. If 20 men take 15 days to to complete a job, in how many days can 25 men finish
that work?
a)10 days         b) 15 days       c) 12 days        d) 18 days
11. In a fraction, if 1 is added to both the numerator at the denominator, the fraction
becomes 1/2. If numerator is subtracted from the denominator, the fraction becomes 3/4.
Find the fraction.
a)2/7    b) 3/7   c)1/5    d) 2/5
12. If Rs.1260 is divided between between A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:4, what is C’s
a)Rs.280          b)Rs.340          c) Rs. 560        d)Rs.540
13. A shopkeeper bought a watch for Rs.400 and sold it for Rs.500.What is his profit
a) 25%             b)30%              c)35%              d)40%
14. What percent of 60 is 12?
a)10%          b) 20%    c)35%              d)40%
15. Hansie made the following amounts in seven games of cricket in India: Rs.10, Rs.15,
Rs.21, Rs.12, Rs.18, Rs.19 and Rs.17(all figures in crores of course).Find his average
a). Rs.16 crore   b)Rs. 20 crore           c)Rs.18 crore               d)Rs.19 crore
16.In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y)      B.x/xy C.x/(x + y)       D.y/xy
17.What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16    B.24    C.30    D.64
18.   The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what % would the width have tobe decreased to maintain the same
a)  37.5%                     b)         40%                 c)         32.5%              d)  25%
19.A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee, putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm. If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade, how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90                       B.Rs.1.00        C.Rs.3.00        D.Rs.8.00
20.There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination. Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36    B.72    C.60                D.100
21.In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either. How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
A.0      B.3                  C.4                  D.5
22.If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4               B.1/2               C.1                  D.2
23. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b < a                      (B) b > a          (C) b = a          (D) b >= a
24. In June a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12   B. 20   C. 24   D. 30
25. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift
A. D/(M-3)      B. MD/3          C. M/(D-3)      D. 3D/(M²-3M)
26. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7     B. 8                 C. 11               D. 12
27. Two hours after a Goods train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 60 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the Goods train. The average speed of the Goods train was?
A. 30               B. 40               C.58                D. 60
28. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5                 B. 4                 C. 2                 D. 8
29.The distance between two places A and B  is 120 km .If one goes by upwards by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey?
a) 48kmph       b)52kmph        c)45kmph        d)54kmph
30. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay?
a)8%                b)  6%              c)5%                d)10%
31. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it?
a)18                 b) 10                c) 9                  d)18
32. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ?
a) 9B               b)18A              c)9A                d)27A
33. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase?      a)250%            b) 300%   c)200%            d)400%
34. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance?
a) 315 feet.    b) 320 feet        c) 410 feet       d)  540 feet
35. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take?
a)340 times      b)360 times     c)400 times      d)450 times
36. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What is the percentage of the mixture of solution?
a) 36%             b)40%              c)24%              d)20%
37. City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population?
a)150 years      b) 130 years     c)120 years      d)100 years
38. Two cars are 135 kms apart. One is running at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph  How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?
a)1 hours         b)2 hours         c)5 hours         d) 3/2 hours
39.  A man walks at a speed of 9 kmph. The distance covered by him in 16 seconds is
(A) 4a0m. (B) 50 m. (C) 80 m. (D) 100 m.
40. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62                      (b) 15/46                      (c) 2/3  (d) 1
41. 350% of ? = 700
(a) 2 (b) 100   (c) 350 (d) 200   (e) None of these
42. 30.25 × 8.05 = ?
(a) 240.5125 (b) 243.5025   (c) 243.5125 (d) 240.5025
(e) None of these
43. The average of eight numbers taken together is  12. Two of these numbers are 0 and the remaining numbers are equal. What is the value of the non-zero number?
(a 16b(b) 12   (c) 6 (d) 18  (e) None of these
44. 83293 – 7946 – 150 = ?
(a) 3683 (b) 73847   (c) 75197 (d) 75097  (e) None of these
45. 10% of 25% of 800 = ?
(a) 20 (b) 2    (c) 40 (d) 4   (e) None of these
46. A Compact Disc Player when sold for Rs 13,600, incurred a loss of 15%. At what price should it have been sold to make a profit of 35% on the cost?
(a) Rs 5,600 (b) Rs 21,600  (c) Rs 20,400 (d) Rs 4,800
(e) None of these
47. 57.75 ÷ 7 = ?% of 20
(a) 35.25 (b) 40.25   (c) 42.25 (d) 41.25   (e) None of these
48. 42 × 18 – 142 = ?
(a) 568 (b) 676    (c) 576 (d) 560   (e) None of these
49. 19.30 × 1.7 + 13.46 = ?
(a) 46.72 (b) 46.27    (c) 292.588 (d) 46.77  (e) None of these
50.     5625   /  75     +  sq.root of  ?     =    96
(a) 441 (b) 400            (c) 361 (d) 484   (e) None of these



Find the odd-man out:
1. (1) 143 (2) 65 (3) 48            (4) 80 (5) 3
2. (1) 12 (2) 42 (3) 110
(4) 30 (5) 54                3. (1) 572 (2) 594 (3) 143
(4) 880 (5) 197
4. (1) 182 (2) 91 (3) 134          (4) 147 (5) 154
5. (1) 97 (2) 83 (3) 101            (4) 123 (5) 131
6. How many numbers would remain if all the           numbers from 31 to 80 that are divisible by 7 or if the          two digits were added, the sum would be 7, are
(1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 28 (4) 29 (5) None of these
7. If 15th of a month is Friday which day would it be on 17th of the next month?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Qs. 8 to 12 are based on the word STABILIZER.
8. How many sets of two letters have as many letters between them as they have in the alphabetical order?
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3 (5) None of these
9. If a popular word can be made with 3rd, 4th, 6th, 8th and 9th letters of the word using all the five letters which would be the third letter of that word? If
no such word can be made your answer would be X.
(1) L (2) A (3) E (4) Z (5) X
10. If all the vowels from the word were dropped and the remaining letters were arranged alphabetically, which letter would be to the right of 5th letter from the right end?
(1) L (2) R (3) S (4) T (5) None of these
11. If all the consonants were replaced by their next letter in the alphabet and the vowels by the preceding letter, and a popular word was made from
the 4th, 5th, 8th and 10th letters, which would be the 3rd letter of this word? If no such word can be made your answer is X and if more than one word can be made your answer is Y.
(1) H (2) S (3) A (4) X (5) Y
12. Which of the following words cannot be formed from the letters of the key word?
Qs. 13-15. Which set of signs +, –, ÷ and × can be inserted in the following to get the right result?
13. 18 9 4 3 6 = 8.
(1) ÷, ×, +, – (2) –, +, ÷, × (3) ×, ÷, +, –  (4) ÷, +, ×, – (5) ÷, –, +, ×
14. 7 88 8 2 4 = 10.
(1) +, ×, ÷, – (2) –, ÷, ×, + (3) +, –, ×, ÷  (4) ×, ÷, +, – (5) +, ÷, –, ×
15. 16 4 3 2 10 = 12.
(1) +, ×, ÷, – (2) +, –, ÷, × (3) ×, +, ÷, –   (4) ÷, ×, +, – (5) ÷, +, ×, –
Qs.16-20.These questions are based on the  arrangement of letters, numbers and symbols given below:
9 K # P 3 4 L £ 5 R $ B 7 + T 8 Z _ U 6 0
16. How many symbols are preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a number?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) None of these
17. If all the letters in the series were arranged alphabetically how many letters will retain their position?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these
18. If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which element would be third to the left of 7th element from the right end?
(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) L (4) 4 (5) None of these
19. Which set of elements would come next?
KP9 4£3 RB5 +87 ...
(1) _6Z (2) ZT_ (3) ZU8 (4) _U8 (5) 0 _U
20. Find the odd-man out:
(1) K3_# (2) 5BR (3) T _Z   (4) 45L (5) 78+
Qs. 21-22. According to a code A + B means A is mother of B.
A × B means A is father of B.
A ÷ B means A is brother of B.
A – B means A is daughter of B.
21. If A × M ÷ V; N – M; S + V:
How is A related to S?
(1) brother (2) husband (3) father  (4) uncle (5) can’t say
22. According to the following, how is R related to K?
H × S; P – H; R ÷ P + K
(1) maternal uncle (2) grand father  (3) aunt (4) cousin (5) None of these
Qs. 23-27 are based on the following statements:
Five friends J, K, L, M and N are posted in Chennai, Hyderabad, Delhi, Bangalore and Lucknow and are professor, lawyer, doctor, engineer and CA by profession but not in the same order.
L is in Hyderabad and M is a lawyer.
J and N are neither in Delhi nor in Chennai.
K and L are not engineer or professor.
Engineer is in Bangalore and doctor is in Delhi.
J is not a doctor or professor.
M is not in Delhi.
23. Who is CA?
(1) J (2) K (3) L  (4) M (5) N
24. Who is posted at Lucknow?
(1) J (2) K (3) L  (4) M (5) N
25. Which of the following is the right combination?
(1) L Chennai doctor
(2) K Lucknow CA
(3) N Delhi professor
(4) M Chennai lawyer
(5) J Bangalore doctor
26. The person in Hyderabad is:
(1) engineer (2) doctor (3) CA  (4) lawyer (5) professor
27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) K is in Delhi.
(2) N is in Chennai.
(3) The doctor is in Delhi.
(4) The professor is not in Bangalore or Hyderabad.
(5) J is not in Bangalore.
Qs. 28-30. According to a certain code:
B £ A means B is neither greater than nor smaller than A.
A 0 B means A is neither equal to nor greater than B.
A $ B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.
A # B means A is either greater than or equal to B.
A _ B means A is either equal to or smaller than B.
28. D $ H S 0 H S _ R R £ V?
I. V 0 H
II. D £ S
III. V _ S
(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Only II and III follow.
(3) Either I or III follows.
(4) Only III follows.
(5) All the three follow.
29. M _ S S 0 A J $ A N # J
I. N $ A
II. M 0 J
III. S 0 N
(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Only I and either II or III follow.
(3) Only II and III follow.
(4) Only I and III follow.
(5) All the three follow.
30. V $ B P 0 B R # V P £ S
I. S 0 V
II. B £ S
III. V # P
(1) Only I follows.
(2) Only I and II follow.
(3) Only II follows.
(4) Only III follows.
(5) Either II or III follows
Qs. 31-34 are based on the information given below:
Four men ABCD and four women PQRS sitting round a table with one man one woman arrangement. Q is to the left of B who is near P.
C is to the right of R. S is opposite P but not near D.
31. Which two of the following are opposite each other?
(1) B and C (2) C and D (3) Q and 3 (4) S and R (5) None of these
32. Where is A seated?
(1) to the left of S (2) between P and R (3) between D and C
(4) to the left of Q
(5) None of these
33. If we go round clockwise, which three are sitting together?
(1) RDS (2) BPD (3) CRD (4) DSA (5) None of these
34. Which of the following is the wrong statement?
(1) B is between Q and P.
(2) C is opposite B.
(3) D is not near S or Q.
(4) S is to the right of C.
(5) A is between R and Q.
Qs. 35-40. Which set of numbers or letters would be the next one in the series given below:
35. APZ CQW ERT ...
(1) GRQ (2) HSQ (3) HSR (4) GSQ (5) None of these
(1) NOQT (2) QRTW (3) OPRU (4) OQSU (5) None of these
(1) IHLJ (2) LJIK (3) KIHJ (4) MKJL (5) None of these
38. 50 66 84 104 ...
(1) 127 (2) 132 (3) 126 (4) 118 (5) None of these
39. 83 89 97 101 ...
(1) 103 (2) 105 (3) 107 (4) 109 (5) None of these
40. 22 25 29 34 ...
(1) 39 (2) 40 (3) 41  (4) 42 (5) None of these

41 to 50 – NON VERBAL REASONING—annexure

Directions:  (41-50)   In each of the questions given below which one of the five Answers Figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?



1.   Combined US-India share of 2010 World GDP was
            a) 25.5%                      b)         35.5%              c)         15.5%              d) 45.5%
2.  Combined US-India share of 2010 World Population was
            a)11.9%                       b)         21.9%              c)         31.9%              d) 1.9%
3.  “Tektuma”, “Waltuma” , Defrasirox – are the patents for drugs rejected recently.  These drugs were applied for by which company for patent?
            a) Novartis, Switzerland         b) Pfizer, USA                        c)         Bayer, Germany
Thervance, USA
4.         Which of the following companies has decided recently (August 2011) to exit desk topPersonal computer market, realising that laptop is commanding more market influence?
            a)         Dell                 b)         IBM                            c) Hewlett Packard
5.         Maruti Suzuki India has launched Maruti Swift at an introductory price ranging from Rs.4.22 lakhs to Rs.6.38 lakh.  Company and its suppliers have invested over Rs.......crore
on the new car, said Mr.Shinzo Nakanishi, CEO of the company.
            a) 100              b)         500                  c)         5000                d)         50
6.       In which of the following States Assembly was shifted to its previous building in May 2011?
            a) Andhra Pradesh                  b)         Kerala                          c) West Bengal
            d) Tamil Nadu
7.  Credit Default swap guidelines were issued by RBI in May 2011.  According to that NBFCs and primary dealers with a net owned fund of Rs ----- crore will be permitted to act as market makers.   The guidelines further said that entities will only be allowed to buy CDS contracts to hedge credit risk and not for speculation.
            a) 100                          b)         500                  c)         1000                d) 750
8.     Name the founder of Desiya Murpokku Kazhagam a party that won 29 seats in the recent State Assembly Elections:
            a) Ms.J Jayalalitha                   b)         Vijayakanth                 c)         Rajanikanth
            d)  Kamal Hasan
9.       Which public sector company that finalised its accounts on May 25, 2011, breached the Rs.10,000-crore mark in profit reporting a net profit of Rs.10,867.35 crore for 2010-11 against Rs.9,622 crore in the year before, recording a rise of 12.92 per cent.
            a) IOC                         b)         ONGC                        c)         CIL     d)CWC
10.`The Reserve Bank of India On May 27, 2011 directed banks to reimburse customers for amounts wrongfully debited from their accounts in failed ATM transactions within --------days of an account holder's complaint or else pay a Rs 100 per day compensation.
            `a)        10                    b)         15                                c)         30                    d)         7
11.       `In respect of such  ATM claims the RBI further said that all customers are entitled to receive such compensation for delays only if a claim is lodged with the issuing bank within --- days of the date of transaction.
            a)         10                    b)         60                                c)         30                    d)         90
12.       Myanmar’s president is in Beijing for a state visit and talks with the leaders of one of his isolated government’s closest allies. Mr. ----------- arrived on his first state visit since being appointed president in February,2011.
            a)         Kim Jong                     b)         Thein Sein                   c)         Mir Gadaffi
            d) Angela Merkel
13.       In order to provide financial services to its Indian customers, the global electronics major ------------said it has been granted a non-banking lender licence  in May 2011 by the Reserve Bank of India.
            a)         Samsung          b)         Apple              c)         TTI                  d) Siemens
14.       ----------- India is eyeing 40 per cent stake in Indonesia's Golden Energy Mines for as much as $1 billion. The rare move to grab such a large chunk of an Indonesian miner would be the biggest acquisition deal in the country this year.
            a)  ONGC                   b)         OIL                 c)         CIL                 d)         IOC
15.       Which city in Uttar pradesh has become the first solar city?
            a)         Moradabad      b)         Varanasi          c)         Lucknow         d)         Kanpur
16.       Which of the following suffered a drop of 31% in Indian exports during the year 2010-11.
            a)         Diamond         b)         Cotton             c)         Groundnut      d) Onion
17.       In which country the ex-president was held guilty of causing damages to its economy by cutting off mobile and internet services during protests in that country and he was fined heavily.
            a)         Libya               b)         China               c)         Egypt              d)         Indonesia
18.       Who was the runner-up in the recently concluded IPL-4?
            a)         Mumbai Indians          b)         Royal Challengers, Bangalore
            c)         Chennai Superkings    d)         Deccan Chargers
19.       Universal Handheld device developed by ---------- is set to help the company in view of RBI financial inclusion programme.  UHD is a compact instrument with seven inch screen and a biometric finger print readers along with a thermal printer, which can be used by business correspondents hired by banks to take banking to rural and remote areas of the country.
            a)         Microsoft                    b)         Dell                 c)         Intel
            d)         IBM
20.       The Chief Minister of which State  has asked the banks to increase the average loan size for each group of women SHGs to Rs. 2.5 lakh from the existing Rs. 1.8 lakh. (May 2011)
The Chief Minister wanted the banks to play a more pro-active role in helping women SHGs in the light of the marginalised role of the micro finance institutions. He hoped that the banks would give a serious thought to the request.
            a)         Andhra Pradesh                      b)         Tamil Nadu
West Bengal                            d)         Bihar

21.       Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) has been made effective from which date?
            a) May 3                      b)         May 21                        c)         May 9th            d) May 16

22.       Marginal Standing Facility Rate : Under this scheme, Banks will be able to borrow upto ---% of their respective Net Demand and Time Liabilities". The rate of interest on the amount accessed from this facility will be 100 basis points (i.e. 1%) above the repo rate. This scheme is likely to reduce volatility in the overnight rates and improve monetary transmission.
            a) 5%                           b)         10%                 c)         25%                 d)         1%
23.    Under Marginal Standing Facility  -Requests will be received for a minimum amount of Rs. --------- crore and in multiples of Rs. ---- crore thereafter.
            a)         10, 1                b)         1,1                   c)         2,1       d) 5,1

24.  Which of the film actors is proceeding to USA for medical treatment for head pain?
            a) Shah Rukh Khan                 b)         Amitabh Bachhan
            c) Salman Khan                       d)         Aamir Khan
25.       Salman Tasheer, Governor of …..................Province, Pakistan was gunned down by one of his guards in January 2011.  His son Shabaaz Tasheet was kidnapped by militants in August 2011.
            a)         Punjab             b) Balochistan             c)         Sindh               d) Islamabad

26.       “We will take a view on merger of subsidiary banks in mid 2012” said Mr................., chairman of State Bank of India, after a board meeting addressed by Finance Minister Mr. Pranab Mukherjee recenlty.
            a) O.P.Batra                b) Chanda Kochar                   c) Pratip Chaudhuri
            d) Hemant Bhatnagar
27.       During 2010-11, the Government infused Rs -------- crore in public sector banks. This was done to maintain tier-I Capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR) at 8 per cent and increase Government equity in some banks to 58 per cent.
            a)10,157                      b) 30,137                     c) 1,157                       d)20,157

28.       In which of the nationalised banks government holds a higher percentage of share capital of 80%?
            a)         UCO Bank                  b)         Canara Bank               c) Indian Bank
            d)         Vijaya Bank
29.       Launched in ------------, NEFT is an electronic payment system that uses a secure mode of transferring funds from one bank branch to another bank branch. NEFT uses the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) technology to ensure end-to-end security and rides on the INdian FInancial NETwork (INFINET) to connect the bank branches for electronic transfer of funds. The participating banks, branch coverage and transaction volumes have been continuously increasing, which is reflective of the acceptance and popularity of the NEFT system.
            a)         October 2001              b)         October 2005              c)         October 2010
            c)         October 1969
30.       Under NEFT system, walk-in customers can remit upto a maximum of Rs............. from one branch of a Bank to another branch of the bank or other banks within India.
            a)Rs.49,999                 b)         Rs.99,999                    c)         19,999
            d) Rs.9,999
31.       What is the repo rate as on 25th August, 2011?
            a)         8%                   b)         7%                   c)         6%                   d) 5%

32.       What is MSF rate as on date? (25.8.2011)
            a) 8%               b)         9%                   c)         6%                   d)         4%
33.       What is the interest rate on SB Accounts in banks and post offices with effect from 3rd May 2011?
            a)         3.5%                b)         5%                   c)         4%       d)  3%
34.       B.S.Yeddyurappa,....................... attempt to get anticipatory bails failed in the State High Court recently.
            a) former Inspector General of Police, Karnataka
            b) former chief Minister of Kerala
            c) former Chief Minister of Karnataka
            d) former Inspector General of Police, Kerala
35.       What is the per capital income of Indians in 2010-11?
            a) Rs.54835/                b) Rs.64835                 c)         Rs.74835/        d)         Rs.46,835/

36.  From the Income tax assessment year 2011-12, where a person receives no other income except salary he need not file income tax  return if his income in a financial year does not excess Rs. --- lakhs.
            a) Rs.1.80                    b)Rs.4.00                     c)         Rs.5.00            d) 10.00

37.      In cases where a person is not required to file income tax return in view of income being less than the specified limit, Form No........... issued by the employer will be treated as Income tax return.
            a) 15    H         b)         16                    c)         15G                 d)         60

38.  German government has agreed to halt nuclear power by the year...............
            a) 2015                        b)         2032                c)         2014                d)         2022

39.       ----------------- President Jacob Zuma flew into Tripoli on May 30, 2011 to try to broker a peace deal with Muammar Gaddafi. Zuma’s previous trip made little progress because Gaddafi has refused to relinquish power.
            a)         Egyptian          b)         France             c)         Chinese           d) South African
40.       The popularity of Berlusconi was fading in view of his facing a trial in a prostitution scandal.  He is a politician in which country.
            a)         Germany         b)         Libya               c)         Italy     d) South Africa

. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries has signed highest number of deals to get global project finance ? 
(A) Australia 
(B) USA 
(C) Saudi Arabia 
(D) India 
(E) None of these 

42. Which of the following terms is used in Banking Field ? 
(A) Interest Rate Swap 
(B) Input Devices 
(C) Sedimentary 
(D) Zero Hour 
(E) Privilege Motion 
Ans : (A) 

. On which one of the following issues can SEBI penalize any company in India ? 
1. Violation of Banking Regulation Act. 
2. Violation of foreign portfolio investment guidelines. 
3. For violation of Negotiable Instrument Act. 
(A) Only 1 
(B) All 1, 2 and 3 
(C) Only 1 and 2 
(D) Only 2 and 3 
(E) Only 2 

. In the opinion of the Governor of Reserve Bank of India, which one of the following is the reason owing to which India’s inflation is accelerating ? 
(A) Excess liquidity in market 
(B) Speculation in essential goods 
(C) Higher food cost 
(D) Commodities futures 
(E) None of these 

. In opinion of the RBI, which one of the following is/are a threat to the smooth functioning of Indian Companies ? 
1. Rising input costs. 
2. High interest rates. 
3. Inflation only. 
(A) Only 1 
(B) Only 2 
(C) Only 1 and 2 
(D) All 1,2 and 3 
(E) None of these. 

46. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/Finance sector ? 
(A) Asset Liability Mismatch 
(B) Asset Liability Maturity 
(C) Asset Liability Management 
(D) Asset Liability Manpower 
(E) None of these 

47. The RBI has asked banks to spell out their policy, procedures and size of the business on which of the following aspects of banking ? 
(A) On-shore banking 
(B) Off-shore banking 
(C) Investments in secondary market 
(D) Wealth management 
(E) None of these 

48. Which of the following organizations has given a US $ 1•72 billion loan to India to build roads in rural areas ? 
(A) Asian Development Bank 
(B) International Monetary Fund 
(C) Bill Gates Foundation USA 
(D) World Bank 
(E) None of these 

49. Who amongst the following has asked banks to adopt ‘six step’ approach to prevent diversion of funds by the companies ? 
(A) Company Registrar 
(C) RBI 
(E) All of these 
Ans : (C) 

50. Which one of the following countries has been invited to join BRIC ? 
(A) Indonesia 
(B) Bangladesh 
(C) South Africa 
(D) China 
(E) Argentina 


Answers :  ENGLISH -ONE
1. (C)   2. (A) 3. (D)   4. (B)  5. (E) 6. (E)   7. (A)   8. (E)   9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (B)           19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (E) 22. (E) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (E) 28. (A)            29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (E) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (D)           37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (E)
41. (E) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D)            45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (E) 50. (A)

Corrected sentences:

31.Ans. D  Progress is impossible (A) / without change, and those (B) / who cannot change their minds (C) / cannot change anything. (D) No error (E)
32. Ans. E. She was allergic (A) / to some medicines (B) / and informed (C) / the doctor about it. (D) No error (E)
33.  Ans. A He walked as fast (A) / as he could so that (B) / he would not (C) / miss the train to work. (D) No error (E)
34. Ans. D She shared (A) / all her secrets with (B) / Suman as they had been (C) / friends from childhood. (D) No error (E)
35. Ans. B. Gautam did not care (A) / so much about (B) / anything else as much (C) / as he cared for his dog. (D) No error (E)
36. Ans. D.  You cannot change (A) / people, but you (B) / can definitely (C) / change yourself.. (D) No error (E)
37.  Ans. C Veena wanted to (A) / become a surgeon (B) / and worked very hard (C) / to achieve this. (D) No error (E)
38. Ans. B. Krishna ran to the (A) / near by grocery store to (B) / buy biscuits as his parents (C) / were expecting guests. (D) No error (E)
39. Ans. A. As soon as (A) / he came home, (B) / he showered and got (C) / ready to go out again. (D) No error (E)
40. Ans. E. She failed to remember (A) / that it was Rema’s birthday (B) / and did not buy (C) / a present for her. (D) No error (E)

1.B      2.A      3.B      4.C      5.C      6.A      7.C      8.B      9.D      10.D 

11. B   12.A    13.D 14. B 15. B 16. B 17.A  18. A 19. C 20.C 

21.C    22.C    23.D    24.E     25.C    26.A    27.A    28.D    29.B    30.B

31.E     32.C    33.A    34.D    35.C    36.D    37.D    38.B    39.E     40.E

41.A    42.B    43.B    44.B    45.B    46.A    47.A    48.A    49.A    50.C

1.B      2.A      3.B      4.C      5.A      6.C      7.A      8.B      9.D      10.C
11.B    12.C    13.A    14.B    15.A    16.C    17.D    18.A    19.C    20.B
21.B    22.C    23.A    24.C    25.D    26.C    27.B    28.D    29.A    30.B
31.C    32.A    33.B    34.A    35.B    36.A    37.B    38.D    39.A    40.B
41.D    42.C    43.A    44.C    45.A    46.B    47.D    48.D    49.B    50.A
1. Ans. b)
X+2y=250; substitute the options 40 will satisfy…because 40+ 2(110)=
2)  a)  Let the speed limit be x.  Second person was fined for twice (20) x + 20  = 35.  x =  15
3)  b)    ans: 11kms
4) c)  4/5 of tank – 12 km.  Full tank – 15 km.   5kms…for 1/3 tank..
5)  a)  35+18=53…digits are reversed
6)   b)  54     1 pencil 2pens and 2 erasers cost Rs.44
                     5 pencils4 pens and 4 erasers       Rs.64
                     6 pencil  6 pens     6 erasers          Rs108
 So 3 pencils 3 pens and 3 erasers cost  108 /2  = 54.
7)   a)  s=5F,S-4=9(F-4)  ===== 5F-4= 9F-36   F=8… father age is 5*8=40
8)   b)  10 should be subtracted then they become 7: 14 -> 1:2
9)   d)  12th term is 35 because common difference is 3..
10)   c)  20 men –15 days….
    Then 25 men--- 20*15/25;==12;
11)     b)  3+1/7+1=1/2
12)   c)   2x+3x+4x=1260
     9x=1260 x= 140; c share= 4*140= 560
13)    a)  500-400/400 * 100==25%
14)  b)  12/60*100= 20%
15)    a)  10+12+15+21+18+19+17/7== 16
16)       c) x/x+y;
17) d)  64 …
18)   a)       let it be 10 x 10 = 100.   Now  100/16  = 6.25 reductions should be 3.75 = 37.5%
19)  c)   Rs. 3.00

of 100 grams,

cp in 1st case, 2* 100/3 * 33 + 100/3 * 24=3000p=30 Rs.

cp in 2nd case, 100/3 *33 + 200/3 *24= 2700p=27 Rs

hence he saved3 Rs.
20)  b)     Let the time taken for non maths questions be x for each question
                Then  150x  + 50 (2x)  =   180 minutes
                           250 x = 180  x =   18/25
                   For 50 maths question   18/25 X 50 X 2 = 72 mints.         
21) b)   3 members…
22)  c)  13=13w/(1-w)  1-w=w; 1=2w  so ans : c
23)   a)   b < a.   numerator has to be 4.  and for that b has to be less than a.
24) c)  30% of 60 matches = 18.  After playing x matches the winning average is ½
              18 + x divided by 60 + x = ½
                36 + 2x  =  60 + x
             2x -x = 60 – 36 =x = 24
25.    d)    Initially  D/M.  Now.   D/(M-3)
                D/(M-3)   - D/M   =   3D   /  M²-3M
26)  c)  Brown will take 18 days to paint all the three houses.  Similarly Black will take 24 days to paint all the three houses and Blue will take 36 days to paint all the three houses.
      Brown has1/18 x 8=  8/18 (4/9) work and Black has done 1/24 x 5 = ¼ of the total work
      Work done by these two people 4/9  + ¼  =  25/36
      Balance work to be done  11/36   .  Blue will do in one day 1/36 of work
    So he will take 11 days to complete the work.
27) b) Goods train has travelled totally 6 hours.  Second train has travelled 4 hours at 60 km/hr
          So goods train average speed = 240/6 = 40 km/hr.
28)  d)  after solving the resultant value is 8…
29)   a)   2xy/x+y; 2(60)(40)/100= 48kmph;
30)  b)   6% bcoz 30% of 20%
31)  c)   in this all sides are equal so 3*3=9
32)    a)  9b directly solve…
33)     b)  Initially take it as 10 x 10 = 100 sq.ft. Now increased to 20 ft.
            20 x 20 = 400.  Increase  = 400-100  = 300  i.e. 300%
34)   a)  perimeter of back wheel = 9 feet.   Perimeter of front-wheel = 7 feet.
                front wheel performs 10 revolutions more
           Let the back wheel perform   x revolutions            
              back wheel has run 9 x.=  7 (x+10)
                           9x -7x = 70   x = 35.   distance  = 35 x 9 = 315 feet.
35)    b)   Perimeter of front wheel = 30     back wheel = 20
             Front wheel revolves 240 times .   240 x30  / 20 = 360 times
36)    a)      1.2 + 2.4 = 3.6 of the total 10 litres = 36%
37)    b)  City A population = 68000  City B population = 42000
                 A is decreasing every year by 80 and B is increasing every year by 120 (80+120=200)
                  Difference = 26000 is to be adjusted at the rate of 200 per year            
                      After 130 years  both are equal….
38)      d)   s=d/t; t=d/s 135/90= 3/2
39)  a)    speed – 9 km per hour = 9000 in 3600 sec.  In 16 seconds  - 40 m.
40)   b)  1/3  Simplify other options they are more than 1/3.

1.(2)     2.(5)     3.(5)     4.(3)     5.(4)     6.(3)     7.(4)     8.(2)     9.(2)     10.(2)

11.(2)   12.(4)   13.(4)   14.(5)   15.(1)   16.(2)   17.(2)   18.(3)   19.(1)   20.(3)

21.(2)   22.(1)   23.(3)   24.(5)   25.(4)   26.(3)   27.(5)   28.(2)   29.(5)   30.(1)

31.(1)   32.(4)   33.(3)   34.(5)   35.(1)   36.(1)   37.(3)   38.(3)   39.(1)   40.(2)

41.(3 )  42.(5 )  43.(1  ) 44.(3  ) 45.(5  ) 46.(5  ) 47.(1  ) 48.(5  ) 49.(2  ) 50.(3  )


explanatory answers
1. (2) The others are 122 –1 = 143; 72 – 1 = 48;
92 – 1 = 80; 22 – 1 = 3.
2. (5) All the others are products of two consecutive numbers: 3 × 4; 6 × 7; 10 × 11; 5 × 6.
3. (5) The digit in the middle is the total of first and third digits.
4. (3) All the others are divisible by 7.
5. (4) All the others are prime numbers.
6. (3) 50 – 22 = 28.
7. (4) We do not know whether the month has 28, 29, 30 or 31 days.
8. (2) AB, ST, SZ, TZ and IE.
9. (2) BLAZE
10. (2) BLRSTZ
11. (2) ‘CASH’
12. (4) It has an additional ‘T’.
13. (4) 14. (5) 15. (1) 16. (2)
17. (2) L and T 18. (3) 19. (1)
20. (3) 21. (2) 22. (1)
23-27. J Bangalore Engineer
K Delhi Doctor
L Hyderabad CA
M Chennai Lawyer
N Lucknow Professor
23. (3) 24. (5) 25. (4) 26. (3)
27. (5) 28. (2) 29. (5) 30. (1)
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (5)
Clockwise  - QSACRDPB
35. (4) A, C, E then P, Q, R then Z, W, T.
36. (1) 37. (3)
38. (3) 72 + 1; 82 + 2; 92 + 3; 102 + 4, 112 + 5.
39. (1) It is a series of prime numbers.
40. (2) Go on adding 3, 4, 5, 6 ... to numbers.
41, (3)
42. (5) ; In each step one new element appears and three elements remain the same.
43. (1) The upper row of the first figure is exactly the same as upper row of fifth figure in problem figure and lower row of first is the same as lower row of fifth.
44.  (3)  ;  In main figure reverse of 1 = 4, and reverse of 2 = 5, then reverse of 3 = 6 rule.
45.  (5)
46.  (5); In alternate figures, line and curve are increasing.
47.  (1); The figure follows if 1 = 5, then 2=6 rule.
48.  (5) ; In each step one new element appears and the first element of the figure goes third of next figure continuously.
49.  (2)  The\\upper element like “C” move clock-ise 90 degrees and 180 degrees alternatively and the lower element moves clockwise 45 deg tice and AC 45 deg. Twice.
50. (3); The number of lines in upper-left increases two and one alternately.  Lower right also increases three and two lines alternately.


1.A      2.B      3.A      4.C      5.C      6.D      7.B      8.B      9.C      10.D

11.C    12.B    13.D    14.C    15.A    16.D    17.C    18.B    19.C    20.A

21.C    22.D    23.B    24.C    25.A    26.C    27.D    28.C    29.B    30.A

31.A    32.B    33.C    34.C    35.A    36.C    37.B    38.D    39.D    40.C

41.D    42.A    43.E     44.A    45.D    46.C    47.D    48.D    49.C    50.C


  1. I find non verbal pictures are not appearing properly.

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  3. my email id is write2shobana@gmail.com can you please send me the model paper as attachment

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