Header Ads


Each question carries one mark.  Each wrong answer will result in losing 1/4 mark.  

TIME :  2 HOURS                      --   8 TO 10 AM,  10 AM TO 12 NOON,  1 TO 3 PM  
3 PM TO 5 PM      6 PM TO 8 PM

Please stick to time schedule and answer.  If you score 100+ marks please inform by sending email to samba.ssivan@gmail.com


Q 1 TO 20 - Note:  Mark  Answer choice “e) none of these’ if none of the given answer is  correct.

Directions: (Question Nos. 1 to 7) Select the related   letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
1. Botany : Plants : : Entomology : ?
(A) Birds          B) Plants       (C) Insects          (D) Snakes
2. Parliament : Great Britain : : Congress : ?
(A) Japan         (B) India       (C) USA               (D) Netherlands
3. Flow : River : : Stagnant : ?
(A) Pool           (B) Rain           (C) Stream       (D) Canal
4. AZBY : DWEV : : HSIR : ?
(A) JQKO         (B) KPOL      (C) KPLO                        (D) KOLP
5. AKU : ? : : CMW : DNX
(A) BGL           (B) BLQ        (C) BGQ              (D) BLV
6. 68 : 130 : : ? : 350
(A) 240 (B) 222          (C) 216              (D) 210
7. 48 : 122 : : 168 : ?
(A) 292            (B) 290         (C) 225               (D) 215

8.         If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth and the sixth letters of the word INCREASED, which of the following will be the third letter of that word?  If more than one such word can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer.   If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.    
1. X                  2. E                  3. M                 4. R                  5. None of these.

Directions: (Question Nos. 9 to 13) Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
9. (A) Sweet
(B) Bitter
(C) Salty
(D) Insipid

10. (A) Lion
(B) Goat
(C) Tortoise
(D) Centaur

11. (A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle

12. (A) AJKL
13. (A) DEB

.           Directions(Q.14.-18):  In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.  An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.  You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.  Give answer
            a) if only assumption I is implicit.
            b) if only assumption II is implicit.
            c) if either I or II is implicit.
            d) if neither I nor II is implicit.
            e) if both I and II are implicit.

14.       Statement:  Central Government employees will get an additional 10 per cent dearness allowance(DA--- Union Government.
            Assumptions: I. The additional DA will help the employees maintain a balance with costlier life-style.
                               II. The increment in DA is not in tune with price rise.
15.       Statement:   Merchants have no country.  The mere spot they stand on does not constitute so strong an attachment as that from which they draw their gains.
            Assumptions: I. The merchants have dual citizenship.
                              II. People other than merchants are more attached to the place they belong to.
16.       Statement:  Private Companies must be involved in composing and marketing the products as manure and fuel.
            Assumption: I. PSUs are not capable of meeting the manure demand fully.
                            II.  The government enjoys monopoly in marketing manure and fuel.
17.       Statement:  “Cricket would some day claim a life the way things are going “—Steve Waugh.
            Assumptions: I.  The players have become violent in their hostility.
                              II.  The audience is getting increasingly fanatic.
18.       Statement:  The Indian Navy will shortly put up for sale its decommissioned aircraft carrier Vikrant, after losing all hope of converting it into a maritime museum.
            Assumptions: I.  All decommissioned ships could be sold by the Indian Navy.
                             II.  Selling of Vikrant is a national shame.
19.       Which pair of letters has the same relationship between them with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair AL has between them in the word GRADUAL?
a. RA               b. DU               c. GR               d. UA              
20.       How many pairs of letters are there in the word OCCUPATION which have the same number of letters between them as in the English alphabet?
a. One             b. Two             c. Three                       d. More than three      

            Directions (Q.21-23):  In a certain code language (a) ‘hai mal theek’ means ‘Wine is tangy’, (b) ‘Gaa me ja’ means “Nights are dark’, (c) ‘mal cho’ means ‘Cold Wine’ and (d) ‘ja Gaa le’ means ‘Nights are bad”.
21.       Which of the following is the code for ‘dark’?
a. ja     b. Gaa             c. me               d. cannot be determined         e. None of these.
22.       What is the code for ‘Cold bad wine’?
1. mal cho ja                B. mal ja le                   C. le cho mal
d. cannot be determined.                    e. None of these.
23.       Which of the following is the code for ‘tangy’?
a. hai   b. theek           c. mal               d. cannot be determined.        e. None of these.


Directions (Q.24-25):  Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

            (i) Five courses A,B, C, D and E each of one month duration are to be taught from January to May one after the other though not necessarily in the same by lecturers P, Q, R, S and T.
            (ii) ‘P’ teaches course ‘B’ but not in the month of April or May.
            (iii) ‘Q’ teaches course ‘A’ in the month of March.
            (iv) ‘R’ teaches in the month of January but does not teach  ‘C’ or ‘D’.

24        Which course is taught by ‘S’?
a. C      b. E.                 c. Either C or D                        d. D                  e. None of these.
25.       Which lecturer’s course immediately follows after course ‘B’?
a. Q                 b. P                  c. S                  d. T                  e. None of these.
26.       Which course is taught in the month of January?
a. C                  b. D                  c. E                  d. Date inadequate      e. None of these.
27.       In a certain code language, A is written as C, B is written as D, C is written as E and so on up to Z.  How is UMBRELLA written in that code?
            a. WODUHNNC                       b. WODTHNNC                       c. WODTGNNC
            d. WODUGNNC                       e. None of these.
28.       Seven bells ring at intervals of 2,3,4,6,8,9 and 12 minutes respectively.  They started ringing simultaneously at 6:00 in the morning.  How many more times would all seven bells ring simultaneously till 5:00 in the evening of the same day?

a)         8          b)         9                      c)         12        d)         18

Directions: (Question Nos. 29 and 30) Some questions are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation in each question.
29. 11 × 12 × 13 = 234, 24 × 23 × 35 = 658,
31 × 43 × 54 = ?
(A) 497 (B) 974
(C) 749 (D) 479

30. 16 (210) 14 14 (156) 12 12 (?) 10
(A) 110 (B) 100
(C) 120 (D) 90

31. A is the sister of B, B is the brother of C, C is the son of D. How is D related to A?
(A) Mother (B) Daughter      (C) Son (D) Uncle

32. Heavier coins are costlier. Ram’s coin is heavier than Mohan’s and costlier than Ramesh’s. Naresh’s coin is costlier than Ram’s but lighter than Yogesh’s. Ramesh’s coin is costlier than Mohan’s. So who is the owner of the costliest coin?
(A) Ram (B) Ramesh     (C) Yogesh (D) Naresh

33. A word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Find out that word:
(A) Mind (B) Ration      (C) Minister (D) Station

34. If A = 2, M = 26 and Z = 52, then BET = ?
(A) 44 (B) 54 (C) 64 (D) 72

35. Sohan started from point X and travelled forward 8 km up to point Y, then turned towards right and travelled 5 km up to point Z, then turned right and travelled 7 km up to point A and then turned towards right and travelled 5 km up to B. What is the distance between points B and X?
(A)  1 km (B) 2 km (C) 3 km (D) 4 km

(Q. 36 to 40) Choose the pair that best  represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the original pair of words. Remember, the best way to approach an analogy question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, find the pair that has a similar relationship

a. criminal : gang
b. display : museum
c. artist : carpenter
d. nail : hammer
e. frame : picture
a. read : skim
b. research : learn
c. write : print
d. think : relate
e. sleep : wake
a. butter : churn
b. wine : ferment
c. grain : shock
d. curd : cheese
e. beef : steak
a. layer : tier
b. tether : bundle
c. chapter : verse
d. riser : stage
e. dais : speaker
a. metropolitan : urban
b. harvest : autumn
c. agrarian : benevolent
d. sleepy : nocturnal
e. wild : agricultural

            TEST II


41. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are known as—
(A) Hardware
(B) Networked Software
(C) Shareware
(D) Applications
(E) None of these

42. A………shares hardware, software, and data among authorized users.
(A) network
(B) protocol
(C) hyperlink
(D) transmitter
(E) None of these

43. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the humanreadable version of a program is called—
(A) cache
(B) instruction set
(C) source code
(D) word size
(E) None of these

44. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is—
(A) copy and paste
(B) copy, cut and paste
(C) cut, copy and paste
(D) cut and paste
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit ?
(A) Read instructions
(B) Execute instructions
(C) Interpret instructions
(D) Direct operations
(E) None of these

46. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a(n)—
(A) operating system
(B) database
(C) database program
(D) data warehouse
(E) None of these

47. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n)—
(A) algorithm
(B) hardware program
(C) software bug
(D) firmware program
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following is not true about RAM ?
(A) RAM is a temporary storage area
(B) RAM is the same as hard disk storage
(C) RAM is volatile
(D) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off
(E) None of these

49. The main directory of a disk is called the………directory.
(A) root
(B) sub
(C) folder
(D) network
(E) None of these

50. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s……
(A) features
(B) format
(C) pagination
(D) grid
(E) None of these
51. =SUM (B1 : B8) is an example of a—
(A) function
(B) formula
(C) cell address
(D) value
(E) None of these

52. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only ?
(A) Floppy disk
(B) Magnetic disk
(C) Magnetic tape
(D) Optical disk
(E) None of these

53. Compilers and translators are one form of—
(C) Hard disk
(D) Software
(E) None of these

54. Data representation is based on the………number system, which uses two numbers to represent all data.
(A) binary
(B) biometric
(C) bicentennial
(D) byte
(E) None of these

55. The most common input devices include—
(A) Monitor and keyboard
(B) Monitor and mouse
(C) Mouse and keyboard
(D) Printer and mouse
(E) None of these

56. www means—
(A) world wide wonder
(B) world wide wizard
(C) world wide web
(D) wide world web
(E) None of these

57. ………processing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders and processes them together in one large set.
(A) Batch
(B) Online
(C) Real-time
(D) Group
(E) None of these

58. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW ?
(A) They are the same—just two different terms used by different manufacturers
(B) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot
(C) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from
(D) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW
(E) None of these

59. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as—
(A) Moving
(B) Dragging
(C) Dropping
(D) Highlighting
(E) None of these

60. A………is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table.
(A) spreadsheet
(B) presentation
(C) database
(D) web page
(E) None of these

61. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these

62. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these

63. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these

64. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these

65. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these

66. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these

67. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these

68. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these

69. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these

70. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these

71. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these

72. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these

73. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(D) registers
(E) None of these

74. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these

75. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these

76. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(C) system utility
(E) None of these

77. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these

78. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these

79. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these

80. Making a field ______ means : that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these


General Awareness Test--
(With special reference to banking industry)
81. Which of the following countries has decided to purchase 126 Rafale fighter aircrafts from France?
            a) Iraq    b) China        c) Bangladesh                        d) Afghanistan                        e)India
82. Which of the following diseases is considered as completely eradicated from India, as no case of the same has been reported in last year?
            a)Polio             b)Tuberculosis c)Cancer         d)Swine flu                 e)Asthma
83. Which of the following countries in India’s neighbourhood is facing charges of violation of human rights of Tamilians living there?
            a)Sri Lanka      b)Myanmar      c)Afghanistan d)Pakistan                   e)Nepal
84. Which of the following is NOT an important function of Reserve Bank of India?
            a)Management of Foreign Exchange Reserves
            b)Foreign Exchange related current and capital account management
            c)Devising Foreign Trade policy of India
            d)Debt and Cash Management for State Govts.
            e)Regulation of Govt. securities
85. Ms Kamla Prasad Bisesar who was on a visit to India recently is the _______
            a)President of Trinidad and Tobago
            b)Prime Minister of  Trinidad and Tobago
            c)President of Fiji
            d)Prime Minister of Fiji
            e)None of these
86. Which of the following statements pertaining to present economic situation of the world is/are true?
a)China and India are making very good progress on the economic front,though    India is a little slower than China.
            b)UK and almost all European nations are now out of economic crisis.
            c)US has decided to give 3 lakh thousand US dollars to Iraq as a compensation for its unnecessary attack on it.
            d)As WTO is abolished,countries are free to make their own economic cooperation treaties.
            e)All are true.
87. India recently signed a Multilateral Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters. This will help India in having a strict check on which of the following issues?
            a)Nuclear safety of its plants  b)Illegal safety of narcotics and drugs
            c)Balance of Trade  d)Black money stashed abroad  d)Border trade among SAARC nations
88. Which of the following organizations of countries, at one of its crucial meetings in Belgium, in December 2011, had agreed to sign an Inter-Government Fiscal Treaty?
            a)OPEC           b)SAARC       c)European Union       d)BRICS         e)NATO
89. Business Correspondent Framework launched by the Reserve Bank of India is a step in achieving which of the following?
            a)Financial Inclusion   b)Transparency in banking transactions          c)Better control over cooperative/small banks   d)Providing direct subsidy to consumers of Public Distribution System       e) None of these.
80. Immediately prior to Sri Mukul Roy who among the following was the Railway Minister of India?
            a)Dr. Manmohan Singh           b)Sri Kamal Nath        c)Ms Mamta Banerjee
            d)Sri Rajiv Sukla         e)Sri Dinesh Trivedi.
91. Nuclear Threat Initiative,the organization which has compiled first ever index of security materials globally, is an agency based in ……
            a)India  b)USA   c)Japan   d)Germany   e)China
92. Who among the following was the chief guest at India’s 63rd Republic Day (2012) function?
            a)Kamla Prasad Bisesar          b)Yingluck Shinawatra           c)David Cameron
            d)Hamid Karzai          e)Sheikh Hasina
93. The 169th meeting of the Orgainzation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was organized in December 2011 in ……….
            a)Doha               b)Dubai   c)Vienna   d)Tehran   e)Beirut
94. The term of President Pratibha Patil in office will end in ……….
            a)July’12   b)June’13  c)January’13   d)July’13   e)January’14
95. India played a Border-Gavaskar Test series cricket matches in January 2012 with ….
            a)New Zealand  b)England  c)Australia  d)South Africe  e)Kenya
96. Which of the following organizations has recommended that financial literacy should be made part of syllabus from high schools itself?
            a)Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
            b)Reserve Bank of India (RBI)    c)Indian Banks Association (IBA)
            d)National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
            e)State Bank of India
97. Ranbir Kapoor won Best Actor Award in 57th Filmfare Award functions for his film..
            a)Wake up sid  b)Rockstar   c)Anjana Anjanee  d)Rajneeti   e)Rocket Singh
98. Prime Minister of India was in Russia on a three day visit in December 2011 to attend
a)G-20 Summit  b)G-8 Summit  c)Festival of India  d)India-Russia Summit  e)WTO summit
99. Who among the following is a Padma Bhushan Awardee?
            a)Anand kumar  b)Shiva Keshavan  c)Vijay Zol  d)Homi K Bhabha  e)Dipika Pallikal
100.Which of the following days is observed as AIDS day every year?
            a)10th March  b)1st December  c)10th December  d)1st May   e)1st March
101. Who amont the following won 12th Asian Shooting (Rifle) Championship organized in Doha recently in Janyary 2012?
            a)Tao Wang  b)Qinan Zhu  c)Shriyanka Sadangi  d)Anjali Bhagwat  e)Abhinav Bindra
102. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Economics?
            a)Ampere  b)Horse Power  c)Relative Density  d)Arbritrage  e)Joule’s Law
103. Wasim Jaffer’s name was in news recently. He is a well known….
            a)Chess player  b)Table Tennis Player  c)Lawn Tennis Player  d)Golf Player  e)Cricket Player
104. Who amon the following is the chief Justice of India at present?
            a)Justice Altamas Kabir  b)Justice Sujata Manohar  c)Justice G S Sanghvi
            d)Justice SH Kapadia      e)None of these
105. Which of the following represents present Cash Reserve Ration (CRR)?
            a)5%  b)4.75%  c)3.25%  d)4.50%  e)None of these
106. During 20th-22nd June’12, the “Earth Summit” will take place in…..
            a)New York  b)Paris  c)Rio de Janerio d)Wahington DC  e)Tokyo
107. Who among the following is one of the winners of Nobel Peace Prize for 2011?
            a)Edmund S Phelps  b)Akira Suzuki  c)Tawakkol Karman  d)Finn E Kydland
            e)Richard F Heck
108. Which of the following is the regulator of stock exchanges in India?
            a)RBI  b)SIDBI  c)SEBI  d)NABARD  e)IBA
109. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Govt.of India to provide banking services in 73000 villages in India?
            a)ASHA  b)Swabhiman  c)Kutir Jyoti  d)RAY  e)Swavalamban
110. What does the letter “D” denote in the term “SDR” (as used in finance)?
            a)Deposits  b)Data  c)Drawing  d)Debt  e)Dealers
111. Which of the following awards is given to sportspersons?
            a)Kalidas Samman  b)Saraswati Samman  c)Ashok Chakra  d)Arjuna Award
            e)Vyas Samman
112. Who among the following is the president of France at present?
            a)Dimitry Medvedev  b)Nicolas Sarkozy  c)Rupert Murdoch  d)Silvio Berlusconi
            e) Francois Hollande
113. Which of the following books is written by Kiran Desai?
            a)A Brush With Life  b)A Fortune Teller Told Me  c)Black Arrow  d)Catch 22
            e)The Inheritance of Loss
114. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of cricket?
            a)Davis Cup  b)Agha Khan Cup  c)Wimbledon Cup  d)Nehru Cup  e)Ranji Trophy
115. Russia is now a member of which of the following organizations and will be inducted formally from 15th July 2012?
            a)G-20  b)G-8  c)UN Security Council  d)World trade organization e)OPEC
116. Total Gross National Product divided by the total population is known as which of the following in economics?
            a)Statutory Liquidity Ratio  b)Inflation  c)National Income  d)Deflation
            e)Per capita income
117. Which of the following is a highlight of the Union Budget 2012-13?
            a)GDP growth projected at 9% level     b)Direct Tax Bill to be introduced in 2014-15.  c)FDI in retail will be allowed from 2015 d)Marginal increase in personal income tax limits  e) No new scheme in health sector will be launched
118. Which of the following terms is used in the game of football?
            a)Penalty  b)Cover point  c)Cox  d)Bull’s Eye  e)Half Nelson
119. Which of the following combinations of the name of countries and their capitals is NOT correct?
            a)Bangladesh-Dhaka  b)Afghanistan-kabul  c)Canada-Ottawa d)China-Beijing
120..Which of the following instruments is used to measure intensity of earthquakes?
            a)Seismograph  b)Periscope  c)Manometer  d)Galvano Meter  e)Dynamometer.



                                                            TEST IV

                                                NUMERICAL ABILITY
Q 121 TO 160 - Note:  Mark  Answer choice “e) none of these’ if none of the given answer is  correct.

121.A rectangular room is 6m wide and 4m high. If the area of its four walls is 128sq.mts., then the length is:

a) 10m.                       b) 8m.             c) 12m.                       d) 10.5m.

122. If the price of oil falls by 12½%, a person can by 18 kg more of oil for Rs.252 than before. If the price had risen by 12½% how much oil could have bought for the same sum?

a) 112kg.        b) 110kg.        c) 120kg.        d) 125kg.

123. An amount of Rs.107.20 is made up of 100p., 50p., and 25p., coins, the number of coins being in the ratio of 5 : 6 : any coins are there?

a) 190.                        b) 200.                        c) 220.                        d) 198.

124. Two trains for Pune leave Bombay at 8.30 a.m. and 9.00 a.m. and travel at 60 and 70km/hr respectively. How many km from Bombay will the two trains be together?

a) 100km.      b) 120km.      c) 150km.       d) 140km.

125. A’s salary is 50% above B’s. How much percent is B’s Salary below A’s?

a) 25%.                       b) 30%.                       c) 33⅓%.        d) 35%.

126. A person sold a horse at the gain of 15%. Had he bought it for 25% less and sold it for Rs.60 less, he would have made a profit of 32%. Find the cost price of the horse?

a) Rs.325.      b) Rs.375.      c) Rs.300.      d) Rs.350.

127. In a journey of 80km a train covers the first 60km at 40 km/hr and remaining distance at 20 km/hr. Calculate the average speed of the whole journey.

a) 40 km/hr.   b) 32 km/hr.   c) 30 km/hr.   d) 35 km/hr.

128. a square is changed into a rectangle by increasing its length by 10% and decreasing its width by 10%. Its area:

a) Remains unchanged.    b) Increased by 10%.                
c) Decreases by 1%.     d) Increases by 1.1%

129. If an apple weighs 4/5 of its weight plus 25 grams, what is its weight in kilograms?

a) 225             b) 125             c) 0.225          d) 0.125

130. Six tractors can plough a field in 8 hours. If they all work together, how many hours will it take for 4 tractors to do the same work?

a) 9.                b) 10.              c) 11.              d) 12.

131. If a discount of 20% off the marked price of a suit saves a man Rs.45, how much did he pay for the suit?

a) Rs.225.      b) Rs.245.      c) Rs.180.      d) Rs.360.

132. A boy takes a 25 questions test and answers all questions. His percent score is obtained by, giving him 4 points for each correct answer and then subtracting 1 point for each wrong answer. If he obtains a score of 70% how many questions did he answer correctly?

a) 17.              b) 18.              c) 19.              d) 20.

133. One side of a square is increased by 3 and another side decreased by 3. A rectangle is formed whose area is 40. What is the area of original square?

a) 31.              b) 34.              c) 37.              d) 49.

134. A Rs.800 suit is sold for Rs.680. What is the rate of discount?

a) 15%.           b) 18%.           c) 20%.           d) 21%.

135.        38     =
            29 -  2

a) 2.                b) 3.                c) 2.5              d) 3.3

136. Which of the following is more than ¾?

a) 35/71.         b) 19/24.         c) 13/20.         d) 15/20.

137. A salesman receives r% commission on a sale of Rs.s. How many rupees does he receive as commission?

a) rs.               b) 100rs.         c) rs/100.        d) r/100.

138. Given the formula A = P (1 + rt), then t =

a) A - P - Pr.           b) A + P          c) A - P         d) A (P + Pr)
                                         Pr                 Pr

139.Which of the following is not a prime number?

a) 23.              b) 37.              c) 101.                        d) 87.

140. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are positive numbers, the fraction a will have a value less than 3 if:

a) ab < 3.        b) a < 3b.        c) b < 3           d)  a < b

141. Three quarts of water are added to 5 quarts of a 20% hydrochloric acid solution. What percentage of the resulting solution is pure hydrochloric acid?

a) 12½.           b) 17.              c) 33⅓.           d) 23.

142. A typist uses lengthwise a sheet of paper 24cms by 30cms. She leaves a 2cm margin on each side and a 4cm margin on top and bottom. What fractional part of the page is used for typing?

a) 11/18.         b) ¾.               c) 2/3.             d) 9/11.

143. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?

a) 20.              b) 40.              c) 110.                        d) 480.

144. One wheel has a diameter of 30cm and a second wheel has a diameter of 20 cm. The first wheel traveled a certain distance in 240 revolutions. In how many revolutions will the second wheel travel the same distance?

a) 120.                        b) 240.                        c) 360.                        d) 480.

145.    2 + 2
           9    7  = ?
            5 + 5
            9    7
a) 1/7.                         b) 1/9.                         c) 2/9.                         d) 2/5.

146. A car is traveling at an average speed of 80km per hour. On the average how many seconds does the car take to travel K kilometres?

a) K/80.          b) K/45.          c) 4K/3.           d) 45K.

Directions: Study the following table and answer the questions 147 –150:



147. The production of vehicles in 1995 is approximately how many times that of the production in 1993?

a) 1.10.           b) 2.                c) 1.50.           d) 1.30.

148. In which of the following years did Type V vehicles register highest production to the total production of the year?

a) 1991.          b) 1990.          c) 1993.          d) 1995.

149. In which of the following years was there a maximum increase in production of Type III vehicles from the previous year.

a) 1992.          b) 1991.          c) 1993.          d) 1994.

150. What was the approximate increase in the production of all types of vehicles together from the year 1991 to the year 1994?

a) 30%.           b) 40%.           c) 45%.           d) 50%.

151. In what ratio must rice at Rs.9.30 per kg be mixed with rice at Rs.10.80 per kg so that the mixture be worth Rs.10 per kg?
a. 7 : 8             b. 8 : 7             c. 31 : 36                     d. 36 : 31
152. In what ratio must wheat at Rs.3.20 per kg be mixed with wheat at Rs.2.90 per kg so that the mixture be worth Rs.3.08 per kg?
a. 4 : 3             b. 3; 4              c. 2 : 3             d. 3 : 2
153. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs.9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar costing Rs.7 per kg so that the re may be a gain of 10% be selling the mixture at Rs.9.24 per kg?
a. 54 kg                       b. 63 kg                       c. 36 kg                       d. 42 kg
154. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16⅔% on selling the mixture at cost price?
a. 2 : 3             b. 4 : 3             c. 6 : 1             d. 1 : 6
155. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 8 : 5 and 5 : 2 respectively. The ratio in which these mixtures be mixed to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 9 : 4?
a. 2 : 7             b. 5 : 2             c. 3 : 5             d. 5 : 7

156. 25% of a certain number is 15 less than 30% of the same number. What is that number?

a) 600.             b) 300.                         c) 750.             d) 135.

157. The population of a village is 4500. 5/9th of them are males and rest females. If 40% of the males are married, then the percentage of married females is:
a) 35.               b) 40.               c) 50.               d) 60.

158. A salesman’s commission is 5% on all sales upto Rs.10000 and 4% on all sales exceeding this. He remits rs.31100 to his parent company after deducting his commission. His sales was worth:

a) Rs.35000.    b) Rs.36100.    c) Rs.35100.    d) Rs.32500

159. A’s income is 10% more than B’s. How much percent is B’s income less than A’s?

a) 10%.                        b) 7%.              c) 9  1/11%.     d) 6 ½%.

160. In an examination, 35% of the examinees failed in G.K and 25% in English. If 10% of the examinees failed in both, then the percentage of examinees passed will be:

a) 40%.                        b) 20%.                        c) 25%.                        d)  50%.




            Directions (Q. 161 - 165) : Rearrange the following sentences as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions that follow.
a)     Production does not stand still, it constantly grows develops and improves.
b)     But the material and cultural needs of the man of today are very great.
c)     Primitive man needed very little, coarse food, an animal skin, a roof over his head and a fire burning on his hearth.
d)     This is necessary because the number of people on our planet is continuously growing and their requirements are increasing all the time.
e)     It could not be otherwise, for in order to live people must produce material wealth, and produce it on a growing scale.
161.      Which is the second sentence in the paragraph?
            a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D                  e) E
162.      Which is the first sentence in the paragraph?
a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D                  e) E
163.      Which is the last sentence in the paragraph?
a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D                  e) E
164.      Which is the third sentence in the paragraph?
a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D                  e) E
165.      Which is the fourth sentence in the paragraph?
a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D                  e) E
Directions (Q. 166 - 170) : Fill in the blanks in the following sentence with the most appropriate alternatives suggested.
166.      The productive forces give rise __________ and determine the relations ______ production.
            a) to, of             b) of, to             c) between, among         d) at, in             e) from, to
167.      The first station _____ this type is the Baira-Sud project _________ Himachal Pradesh.
            a) from, at         b) of, in             c) to, between                d) of, under       
e) among, under
168.      In USA, the Constitution does not prescribe any qualification _______ the judges __ the Supreme Court.
            a) of, for                        b) in, among                  c) for, of            d) to, between   
e) under, below
169.      Communism will put an end __ the division of society ________ classes and social groups.
            a) of, among                  b) on, between               c) at, for            d) to, into
            e) from, to
170.      I shall go _____ Goa soon _____ meet her.
            a) at, for            b) into, to          c) from, in         d) between, under          e) to, to

            Director (Q. 171 - 180) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow:
            India is an underdeveloped though a developing economy. The nature of unemployment, therefore, sharply differs from the one that PREVAILS in industrially advanced countries. Lord Keynes DIAGNOSED unemployment in advanced economies to be the result of a DEFICIENCY of effective demand. It implied that in such economies, machines become IDLE and demand for labour falls because the demand for the products of industry is no longer there. Thus Keynesian REMEDIES of unemployment concentrated on measures to keep the level of effective demand sufficiently high so that the economic machine does not SLACKEN the production of goods and services.
            This type of unemployment caused by economic FLUCTUATIONS did arise an India during the DEPRESSION in the 1930s, which caused untold misery. But with the growth of Keynesian remedies it has been possible to MITIGATE cyclical unemployment Similarly, after the Second World War, when wartime industries were being closed, there was a good deal of frictional unemployment caused by RETRENCHMENT in the army, advance factories, etc. These worker were to be absorbed in peace time industries. Similarly, the process of rationalization, which started in India since 1950, also caused displacement of labour. The FLEXIBILITY of an economy can be judged from the speed with which it heals frictional unemployment. But more serious that cyclical unemployment or frictional unemployment in an underdeveloped economy like India is the prevalence of CHRONIC underemployment or disguised unemployment in the rural sector and the existence of urban unemployment among the educated classes.
171.      After reading the passage, what do you think Lord Keynes must be?
            a) Economist                 b) Politician                   c) Industrialist                d) Worker
            e) Bureaucrat
172.      Apart from being underdeveloped, what can the Indian economy be referred to as?
            a) Undeveloped b) Backward      c) Developing                d) Debt-ridden
            e) Semi-developed
173.      According to Keynes, unemployment in advanced economies is the result of a deficiency of
            a) effective supply                                             b) effective demand      
c) effective supply as well as demand                 d) money supply           
e) Crisis-ridden market
174.      A flexible economy heals speedily
            a) disguised unemployment        b) effect of foreign debt             
            c) budgetary deficit                    d) frictional unemployment          e) industrial losses
175.      In which type of economies, machines become idle and demand for labour falls because the demand for the industrial products is no longer there?
            a) Western                    b) Asian            c) Advanced                  d) Under-developed
            e) Developing
176.      What was the result of retrenchment in the army, advance factories etc after the Second World War?
            a) Frictional unemployment                     b) Inflation                     c) Poverty
            d) Disguised unemployment                    e) Trade unionism
            Directions (Q. 177 - 178) : Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the words given below as used in the passage.
177.      MITIGATE
            a) To vitiate                   b) To alienate                c) To temper                 
d) To deviate                 e) To mix
            a) Victories                    b) Defeats                     c) Conspiracies              d) Debts
            e) Variations
            Directions (Q. 179 - 180) : Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning of the world as used in the passage.
179.      SLACKEN
            a) Retard                       b) Retreat                      c) Fasten          d) Speed
180.      DEPRESSION
            a) Crisis            b) Boom            c) Disaster        d) Order            e) Success

            Directions (Q. 181 - 190) : Pick out the most effective pair of works from the given alternatives to fill in the blanks to make the sentence, meaningfully complete.
181.      With each passing day, international pressure on Pakistan to _______ to land in Kargil appears to be _________.
            a) fault, increasing         b) vacate, mounting                   c) engage, surpassed
            d) engineer, classical     e) adopt, motivating      
182.      An ________ group in the US has sounded the alarm bells over the progressive _______ of ocean life by noise pollution.
            a) atmospherical,  flourish                       b) environmental, disruption       
c) offensive, increase                             d) energetic decay
183.      It has been widely acknowledged that transparency in governance is a major ______ to _________.
            a)  vaccine, cynicism                 b) support, nepotism                  c) boost, autocracy
            d) antidote, corruption                 e) effort, power
184.      In a _________, the ultimate sovereignty vests in the _______.
            a) dictatorship, commoner          b) democracy, monarch              c) judiciary, judge
            d) democracy, people                 e) republic, king
185.      He felt ____ by her ___ remarks.
            a) glorified, sarcastic                  b) sad, appreciative        c) humiliated, scornful
            d) pleased, derogatory                e) relieved, painful
186.      One by one, the _______ to implementation of the peace plan are being ____ by the supporters of the peace plan.
            a) hurdles, removed                   b) obstacles, accumulated          c) problems, ignored
            d) thorns, injected                      e) pace, forwarded
187.      The electoral ________ put the party leader in a _______ position.
            a) defeat, vulnerable                   b) malpractice, surprising            c) victory, laughable
            d) loss, pleasant                        e) mandate, ironical                   
188.      He is a _____ man noted in society for his _________.
            a) pleasant, firmness                  b) conscientious, integrity           c) sober, temper
            d) peace-loving, intolerance        e) noble, atrocity.
189.      Production was _______ due to the _______ of raw materials.
            a) hit, abundance                       b) accelerated, crisis                  c) affected, shortage
            d) abundant, dearth                    e) completed, absence
190.      The past few years have seen the ________ of India as an important _______ market.
            a) progress, tourist                     b) emergence, global                  c) fate, rural
            d) fortune, urban                       e) destiny, economy

            Directions (Q. 191 - 200) : Find the part of the sentence which has a grammatical or idiomatic error. If there is no error, your answer will be 5.
191.      a) Bulk of unemployment /                      b) in India /                    c) manifest itself /
d) in the rural areas /                              e) None of these
192.      a) India won the trophy /                         b) by defeating /             c) Sri Lanka in /
            d) the final /                                           e) None of these
193.      a) Indian workers do /                             b) not remains in /          c) the same job for /
            d) a considerable amount of time. /          e) None of these
194.      a) She wants to /                                   b) become a doctor        c) like hers /
            d) illustrious father. /                              e) None of these
195.      a) The method of appointment /               b) of the governor          
c) was thoroughly discussed                   d) in the constituent assembly. /            
e) None of these 
196.      a) In order to understanding /      b) necessity and chance /          
c) let us first answer/                  d) the following question. /          e) None of these
197.      a) The spiral character / b) of development /                    c) may be seen in /
            d) various spheres of reality. /     e) None of these
198.      a) The Constitution provide /       b) for the extension /                  c) of President’s rule
            d) if needed                               e) None of these
199.      a) Do not forget to                      b) take your photo identity card /             c) so that /
            d) you vote in the election. /        e) None of these
200.      a) This means that /                   b) relative truth must /                c) also contain
            d) grain of absolute truth. /          e) None of these           


1.C       2.C       3.A       4.C       5.D       6.B       7.B       8.C       9.D       10.D

11.B     12.C     13.B     14.A     15.D     16.E     17.C     18.D     19.C     20.B

21.A     22.C     23.C     24.C     25.A     26.C     27.C     28.B     29.D     30.A

31.C     32.C     33.C     34.B     35.A     36.E     37.B     38.C     39.A     40.A


41.D     42.A     43.C     44.D     45.d     46.C     47.A     48.B     49.A     50.B

51.B     52.B     53.D     54.A     55.C     56.C     57.A     58.C     59.b     60.C

61.B       62.A       63.D       64.A       65.D       66.A       67.A       68.B       69.C       70.B

71.A       72.A       73.B       74.A       75.C       76.B       77.A       78.C       79.D       80.B

81.E      82.A     8 3.A     8 4.C     8 5.B     86.A      87.D      88.C     89.A      90.E

91.B    92.B    93.C    94.A    95.C    96.B    97.B    98.D    99.D   100.B

101.E    102.D   103.E     104.D   105.B    106.C   107.C   108.C    109.B    110.C

111.D    112.E    113.E     114.E     115.D   116.E     117.D   118.A   119.E    120.A

121.A  122.A  123.D 124.C 125.C 126.B 127.B 128.C 129.D 130.D

131.A  132.C 133.D 134.A  135.A  136.B 137.C 138.C 139.D 140.B

141.A  142.A  143.C 144.C 145.D 146.D 147.A  148.B 149.C 150.D

151.B 152.D 153.B 154.D 155.A  156.B 157.C 158.D 159.C 160.D
161.E  162.A  163.B 164.D 165.C 166.A  167.B 168.C 169.E  170.E

171.A  172.C 173.B 174.D 175.C 176.A  177.C 178.E  179.E  180.B

181.B 182.B 183.D 184.D 185.C 186.A  187.A  188.B 189.C 190.B

191.C 192.E  193.B 194.C 195.E  196.A  197.E  198.A  199.D 200.D



1. (C) The science is related to the study of this subject.
2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D)
6. (B) It is 43 + 4 : 53+ 5.
The next set would be 63 + 6 : 73 + 7, i.e. 222 : 350.
7. (B) The given set is 72 – 1 : 112 + 1 : : 132 – 1 : 172 + 1 i.e.
169 – 1 : 289 + 1.
8.         With the letters N, R, E A.  Meaningful words that can be formed –
               EARN,   NEAR.
9. (D) All the others are different type of tastes.
10. (D) It is Greek mythological creature, others are real ones.
11. (B) All the others are formed with straight lines.
12. (C)
13. (B)
14. a;  It is possible that employees may not be happy with this increment.  But the Government may be thinking so.
15.d; The statement has not considered the term ‘citizenship’.  Hence I is not implicit.
16. e; The invitation of private companies reveals that presently the manure companies are monopolistically dominated by PSUs.  Hence I and II both are implicit.
17. c; Both cannot hold good simultaneously. 
18.d;  The objection against assumption I is ‘All’.  II hasn’t any relation with the statement.
19.c;  GR – This pair of letters has same relationship between them in the English alphabets as the letters AL.  i.e. same number of alphabets are there between these two alphabets.(AL  & also GR)
20.b;    O C C U P A T I O N.   C & I,  O & N.  (They have same number of alphabets in this word also as in English Alphabets A – Z.
21  to  23.   From (a) and (c), mal = Wine and Cho = Cold
               from (b) and (d),  me = dark; Le = bad
            tangy = hai or theek.  Therefore,
21. a;
22; c
QNS. 24 – 26:    LECTURERS             COURSES       MONTH
                                    P                      B          Jan/Feb/Mar  …  (ii)
                                    Q                     A          Mar              … (iii)
                                    R                      A/B/E   Jan                 … (iv)
            P will teach in February and R will definitely teach the course E.  Hence the
                  table can be made as
                                    P                      B          Feb
                                    Q                     A          Mar
                                    R                      E          Jan
                                    S                      C/D      Apr/May
                                    T                      D/C      May/Apr.

27.c;  Each letter moves two steps ahead.
29. (D) Add the digits of first, second and third numbers to get
the three numbers of the answer 3 + 1; 4 + 3;
5 + 4 = 479.
30. (A) 16 × 14 – 14 = 210; 14 × 12 – 12 = 156;
12 × 10 – 10 = 110.
31. (C)
32. (C) Heavy/Costly to Light/Cheap. Yogesh, Naresh, Ram,
Ramesh and Mohan.
33. (C) It has an ‘E’
34. (B) 4 + 10 + 40 = 54.
35. (A)

36. e. A binding surrounds a book; a frame surrounds  a picture.
37.b. One explores to discover; one researches to learn.
38. c. Upon harvesting, cotton is gathered into bales;grain is gathered into shocks.
39. a. Division and section are synonyms; layer and tier are synonyms.
40. a. Pastoral describes rural areas; metropolitan describes urban areas.

121. (a) 10m                  Solution: Area of 4 walls = 2(l + b) ´ h
 128 sq.m = 2(l + 6) ´ 4
 128 Sq.m = 4(2l + 12) = 8l + 48
  or 8l = 128 - 48 = 80
  l =80 = 10m
122. (a) 112kg               Solution: The reduced price of 18 kg of oil = 12 ½% of 252.

                                                  = 25 ´ 252 = 63
                                                        2 ´ 100     2

                                                  The reduced price of 1kg oil = 63 ´  1  = Rs. 7
                                                                                                2     18          4

                                                  Original price per kg = 7 ´   100   .
                                    4    100 - 12 1

= 7 ´ 100 ´ 2 = Rs.2
       4 ´ 175

Increased price per kg = 2 + 121% of 2

= 2 + 25 ´ 2  = Rs. 9
          2 ´ 100         4

For Rs.9 he could have 1kg oil
                                                For Re.1 he could have 1 ´ 4 kg oil

                                                For Rs.252 he could have 1 ´ 4 ´ 252  = 112 kg.

123 (d) 198                    Solution: Ratio number = 5 : 6 : 7
                                                  Value of coins = 100p, 50p, 25p.
                                                  Collection ratio = 500 : 300 : 175 i.e., 20 : 12 : 7
                                                  Sum of the ratio = 20 + 12 + 7 = 39

                                                  \ Value off 100p coins = 20 ´ 10725 = 55
                                                                                               39      100
                                                       No. of 100p coins = 55
  Value of 50p coins = 12 ´ 10725 = 55
39        100
  No. of 50p coins = 33 ´ 2 = 66
  Value of 25p coins =  7  ´ 10725 = 77
                                  39       100      4

  No. of 25p coins = 77 ´ 4 = 77
  Total No. of Coins = 55 + 66 + 77 = 198.

124 (c) 150km   Solution: The 1st train has a lead of 30 km and the 2nd­ train 15 km/hr over
                                                  the first.
                                                  \ Tike taken to gain 30 km = 2 hours
                                                  \ The two trains are together 75 ´ 2
  0r 150 km from Bombay

125. (c) 33  1/3 %                      Solution: Suppose B’s salary = Rs.100
                                                  Then A’s salary = Rs.100 + Rs.50 = Rs.150
                                      Difference between the salaries of both = Rs.150 -100 = Rs.50
                                                  On Rs.150 B’s Salary is below A’s by Rs.50
                                                  On rs.100 B’s salary is below A’s by
                                                  =  50  ´ 100 = 33 1%
                                                         150                   3

126. (b) Rs.375              Solution: Suppose C.P of horse = Rs.100
                                                  \ S.P. = 100 + 15 = Rs.115
                                                  2nd C.P. = Rs.75, Profit = 32%
  2nd S.P. = 75 ´ 132 = Rs.99
                                                  Difference in two S.P.’s = 115 – 99 = Rs.16
                                                  If difference is 16 then C.P. = Rs.100
  If the difference is Rs.60, then C.P. = 100 ´ 60 = Rs.375

127. (b) 32 km/hr.          Solution: Time taken to cover 60km at 40 km/hr

                                                  = Distance  = 60 = 3  hours.
                                                      Speed        40    2

                                                  Time taken to cover (80 - 60) or 20km at

                                                  20 km/hr = Distance = 20 = 1 hour
                                                                      Speed      20

                                                  Total time taken to cover 80 km = 1 + 3 = 5 hours.
2       2

  Now speed =  Distance     = 80 = 32 km/hr.
                        Time taken      5

128. (c) Decreases by 1%Solution: Let x be the length of side of the square so that sides
  of the rectangle will be 0.9% and 1.1x and
  area = 0.9x (1.1x) = 0.99x2
  i.e. 1 percent less than the area of square.

129. (d) 0.125.               Solution: 1 of apple weighs 25gms,
  hence weight of the apple  = 25 ´ 5 = 125gm or 0.125 kg.

130. (d) 12                     Solution: Four tractors can do the job in 8 ´ 6 = 12 hours

131. (a) Rs.225              Solution: Let x be the cost of the suit.
                                                  Since 0.20 x = Rs.45, x = Rs.225.

132. (c) 19                     Solution: Let x be the number of correct questions so that
                                                  (25 – x) questions were incorrect.
                                                  Hence 4x - (25 - x) = 70
  Solving, x = 19.
133. (d) 49                     Solution: Let x be the side of the square.
                                                  Hence (x + 3) (x - 3) = 40
                                                  Or x2 - 9 = 40
                                                  \x2 = 40 + 9 = 49

134. (a) 15%                  Solution: Amount of discount = 800 - 680 = Rs.120.

                                                  Percentage of discount = 120 ´ 100 = 155.

135. (a) 2                      Solution: 29 - 2  = 29 - 10 = 19

                                                  Hence 38 = 2

136. (b) 19                     Solution: 19 is 18 + 1
             24                                  24        24
  Hence more than 3

137. (c)  rs .                  Solution: amount of commission =  rs rupees.
100                                                                                                100

138. (c) A – P                Solution: Since A = P(1 + rt) = P + Prt
                                                  Hence, t = A – P

139. (d) 87                     Solution: 87 is not a prime number as it is equal to 3 ´ 29.

140. (b) a < 3b               Solution: Since a < 3
                                                  a < 3b.

141. (a) 12 ½  solution: 5 quarts of 20% solution contain 1 quart of acid. After
                                                    adding 3quarts of water, total solution will be 5 + 3 = 8 quarts
              containing 1 quart of acid. Required percentage
                                                  = 1 ´ 100 = 12 1
8                        2
142. (a) 11                     Solution: Area of paper = 24 ´ 30 = 720 sq.cm.
18                                                Area typed = (24 – 2 – 2) (30 – 4 – 4) = 20 ´ 22 = 440 sq.cm.
Fraction of the page used for typing = 440 = 11
                                                         720    18

143. (c) 110                   Solution: All the numbers from 200 to 299 begin with 2, there are 100
                                      such numbers. In addition to this, numbers like 102, 112, 122,
                                                 132, 142, 152, 162, 172, 182 and 192 end with 2. There are
                                                     10 such numbers. Total         number = 100 + 10 = 110.

144. (c) 360                   Solution: Second wheel being smaller in diameter will have more
  revolutions. The number of revolutions = 240 ´ 30 = 360

145. (d) 2                                  Solution: 2 + 2          2    1 + 1
           5                                                 9    7   =          9    7   = 2
                                                              5 + 5               1 + 1      5
                                                               9    7          5    9    7
146. (d) 45 K                             Solution: The car travels one km in 3600 = 45 seconds
                                                              Hence for K kilometers it will take 45 K seconds.

147. (a) 1.10                              Solution: Production of vehicles in 1985 = 430
                                                              Production of vehicles in 1983 = 390
                                                              Their ratio = 440 = 1.10 (appx.)

148. (b) 1980    

Ratio of production of type V vehicles in 1990 to total production =  60  = 0.27 (appx.)
  Ratio of production of Type V vehicles in 1991 to total production =  55  = 0.20 (appx)
  Ratio of production of Type V vehicles in 1992 to total production =  52  = 0.15 (appx)
  Ratio of production of Type V vehicles in 1993 to total production =  85  = 0.22 (appx)
  Ratio of production of Type V vehicles in 1994 to total production =  90  = 0.21 (appx)
  Ratio of production of Type V vehicles in 1995 to total production =  95  = 0.22 (appx)
  The ratio is highest in 1990.

149. (c) 1993                 Solution: Increase in production of Type III vehicles:
                                                  In 1991 over 1990 = 45 – 39 = 6           
                                      In 1992 over 1991 = 53 – 45 = 8
                                      In 1993 over 1992 = 70 – 53 = 17
                                      In 1994 over 1993 = 75 – 70 = 5
                                      In 1995 over 1994 = 78 – 75 = 3
                                      Hence there was maximum increase in 1993.

150. (d) 50%                  Solution: Percentage increase of all vehicles from 1991 to 1994
                                                  = 420 – 280 ´ 100

                                                  = 140 ´ 100 = 50%
151.     By rule of alligation:
152.     By rule of Alligation:

153.     S. P. of 1 kg mix = Rs.9.24, Gain = 10%
            By the rule of alligation
            Let x kg of sugar of 1st king be mixed with 27 kg of 2nd kind.
            Then: 7 : 3 : : x : 27 or x =
154.     Let C. P. of 1 litre milk be Re1
            S. P. of 1 litre of mix = Re.1, Gain =
            \ C. P. o f1 litre of mix =
                        \Ratio of water and milk
155.     Milk in 1 litre of A =
            Milk in 1 litre of B =
            Milk in 1 litre of final mix =
            Let cost of 1 litre of milk be Re.1
            C. P. of 1 litre mix in A = Re.
            C. P. of 1 litre mix in B = Re.
            Mean price = Re.
            \ By the rule of allegation, we have:
            \ Required ratio of =
156. (b).                       30  x  -  25  x = 15 Þ x = 300
 100        100

157. (c).                       Males =  5 ´ 4500   = 2500, Females = 2000

                        Married males =  40  ´ 2500 = 1000
Married females = 1000
                        \ Percentage of married females =   1000 ´ 100  = 50%
158. (d).                      Let the total sale be Rs.x
Commission =  5  ´ 10000 +  4  ´ (x – 10000 ) = 100 +  4x .
                                              100                 100                                    100

                        \ x – 100  +  x     = 31100     or         24x   = 31200
                                               25                                        25

                        \ x = 31200 ´ 25  = 32500

159. (c).                       Required percentage =        10     ´ 1000 = 9  1/11%
                                                                       (100 + 10)

160. (d).                      Failed in G.K. Only    = (35 – 10) = 25         
                        Failed in English only = (25 – 10) = 15
                        Filed in both = 10
                        Failed in one or 2 subjects = (25 + 15 + 10) = 50
                        Number of examinees passed = (100 – 50) = 50%.


Corrected sentences:

191.   C) Bulk of unemployment in India manifests itself in the rural areas.

193. B)  a) Indian workers do /                             b) not remain in /          c) the same job for /
            d) a considerable amount of time. /          e) None of these

194.C)   a) She wants to /                                   b) become a doctor        c) like her /
            d) illustrious father. /                              e) None of these

196. A)  a) In order to understand /         b) necessity and chance /          
c) let us first answer/                  d) the following question. /          e) None of these

198. A)  a) The Constitution provides /    b) for the extension /                  c) of President’s rule
            d) if needed                               e) None of these

199. D)  a) Do not forget to                      b) take your photo identity card /             c) so that /
            d) you can vote in the election. /             e) None of these

200.D)   a) This means that /                   b) relative truth must /                c) also contain
            d) grains of absolute truth. /       e) None of these           



  2. thanks for your comment. pl also see CWE 1 and 3 papers for which I have given link in facebook.

  3. Hello Sir,
    Your paper was very good for us to practice. thanks.pls upload more papers if you get.

    With Regards,
    Archana (from Coimbatore)

  4. nice site for praticing,
    but i think answers of the question number 57 70 44 are wrong. plz check it.(anser wil be 52-c,70c,44c are the correct anser according to me.

  5. Great help thank you please Provide IBPS PO Model paper Also ..thanks in Advance


Powered by Blogger.