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BANK CLERKS PAPER POSTED IN FACEBOOK ON 9 DECEMBER 2012


PLEASE ALSO READ IBPS CLERKS MODEL PAPER
http://www.sbank.in/2012/12/test-i-q-n1.html

BANK CLERKS MODEL TWO
ENGLISH MODEL TWO 
Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of the poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in the diets of the poor, gains in agricultural productivity have significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural and industrial growth has shown that a 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5 per cent and urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment and price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving re-allocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for industrialisation would come mainly from agriculture with less social and economic costs.

Interdependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment-output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55-0.60 and that for cereals is 0.25-0.30.The other important inter-dependency, which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand an increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand outpaces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand.

Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the energy provided by food. Foodgrain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since foodgrains account for about four-fifth of the calorie intake of the poor.

1. Which of the following, according to the passage, signifies influence of agricultural products on poverty?
(a) Higher labour productivity in agriculture reduces poverty.
(b) Agricultural products is the main constituent of the food of the poor.
(c) Agriculture output spurs industrial growth which ultimately helps the poor.

(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)
(5) None of these

2. Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits the urban workers get from increased agricultural production?
(a) Urban workers get agricultural products at a cheaper rate.
(b) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector.
(c) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector.

(1) None
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
(5) All (a), (b) and (c)

3. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word 'sheer' as used in the passage?
(1) simple
(2) undiluted
(3) mere
(4) outright
(5) unassisted

4. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word 'deflation' as used in the passage?
(1) reduction
(2) index
(3) inflation
(4) improvement
(5) diffusion

5. Which of the following is meant by "the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate" as used in the passage?
(1) People refuse to work at the minimum wage rate
(2) People still work at the minimum wage rate
(3) People are eager to work at the minimum wage rate
(4) People have no option but to work at the minimum wage rate
(5) None of these

6. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
(1) Increase in labour productivity in agriculture can reduce poverty
(2) Agricultural sector can provide the impetus for greater industrialization at lower cost
(3) Increase in food supply will increase the demand for labour forces
(4) Concentration of low income group people is relatively higher in the non-agricultural sector
(5) All are true

7. Which of the following in addition to employment-output elasticity, according to the passage, creates indirect employment?
(1) Inter-linkage of demand of food and other sectors.
(2) Inter-dependence of forces of labour supply and food demand.
(3) Income elasticity of demand for food.
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India?
(1) Widespread import of food grains
(2) Oversupply of agricultural products
(3) Increase in prices of industrial products
(4) Foresight in gauging the demand-supply of labour
(5) None of these

9. Which of the following, according to the passage, will be the result of increase in non-agricultural production?
(a) Increase in demand for non-agricultural products.
(b) Increase in demand for intermediate agricultural products.
(c) Increase in final agricultural products.

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (b)
(5) All (a), (b) and (c)

10. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word 'interdependence' as used in the passage?
(1) correlated
(2) dependence
(3) independence
(4) relativity
(5) interrelated

11. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word 'elasticity' as used in the passage?
(1) flexibility
(2) brittleness
(3) rigidity
(4) adamancy
(5) peculiarity

12. Which of the following, according to the passage, is the cause for increase in food supply?
(1) Less demand by the industrial sector
(2) Bumper food production due to adequate monsoon
(3) Change in technique of food production
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of these

13. The wage rate of which of the following sectors is dependent on the foodgrain price?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Informal urban sector
(c) Organized urban sector

(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) All (a), (b) and (c)

14. Why, according to the passage, lower food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors?
(1) Poorer people cannot afford to buy non-food products
(2) Lower price of food items provides the poor with extra funds to buy other products and services
(3) The production cost of non-agricultural products and services reduces
(4) Industrial sector can afford to employ more people at lower cost
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word 'causal' as used in the passage?
(1) casual
(2) precursor
(3) effective
(4) causing
(5) experiencing

Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following five sentences into a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions given below:
(A) However, with innovation coming into play unit-linked/market-linked products have also found a place in insurance business after privatization.

(B) It is also worth mentioning here that world-over unit-linked products constitute quite a substantial chunk of the total portfolio of insurance companies.

(C) There was a time when only traditional insurance products used to dominate the arena.

(D) The emergence of these products of various insurance companies combines the characteristics of both endowment insurance policies and mutual funds.

(E) The insurance industry in India is evolving and assuming different proportion since it was privatized.

16. Which of the following will be the Fourth sentence in the paragraph?
(1) A (2) B (3) C    (4) D (5) E
17. Which of the following will be the Second sentence in the paragraph?
(1) A (2) B (3) C   (4) D (5) E

18. Which of the following will be the Last sentence in the paragraph?
(1) A (2) B (3) C   (4) D (5) E

19. Which of the following will be the First sentence in the paragraph?
(1) A (2) B (3) C   (4) D (5) E

20. Which of the following will be the Third sentence in the paragraph?
(1) A (2) B (3) C   (4) D (5) E

Qs. 21-30. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In the decade since reforms were introduced, India has achieved substantial success in the sphere of macroeconomics. Overall growth rate has been (21) except for the last couple of years. It bears pointing out that we have now come to view a 6 per cent (22) rate as a slowdown! This is a far cry from pre-reforms rate of growth of 3 per cent. The price level has by and large remained (23) both as measured by the WPI and CPI. India's (24) of payments position has been comfortable. Exports, while (25) some sluggishness this fiscal, have been growing. Imports, in spite of (26) liberalisation, have not gone out of hand. This is amply reflected in the comfortable current account deficits (CAD); the CAD to GDP ratio has remained way below the crisis (27) that it had achieved in 1991. The rupee has weathered external turbulence rather well even when East Asia was experiencing (28) difficulties.

However, the one unambiguous Achilles' heel of the reforms has been the (29) state of government finances. One of the two crises that India faced in 1990-91 was the unsustainable imbalance between government revenues and (30).

21.(1) pulsating
(2) shocked
(3) commendable
(4) promotable
(5) dipped

22.(1) production
(2) consumption
(3) index
(4) growth
(5) progress

23.(1) moderate
(2) lukewarm
(3) shaky
(4) considerate
(5) obstinate

24.(1) ledger
(2) balance
(3) equilibrium
(4) intention
(5) idea

25.(1) demonstrated
(2) exercising
(3) rejecting
(4) display
(5) exhibiting

26.(1) substantial
(2) exemplary
(3) indicative
(4) conservative
(5) destructive

27.(1) rationalization
(2) handling
(3) management
(4) proportions
(5) ratio

28.(1) crisis
(2) overcoming
(3) severe
(4) enjoyable
(5) wailing

29.(1) critical
(2) vulnerable
(3) prone
(4) attackable
(5) easygoing

30.(1) surplus
(2) measurement
(3) thinking
(4) incomes
(5) expenditures

Qs. 31-40. In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.

31.
(A) Concentration
(B) Dissociation
(C) Distraction
(D) Deliberation

(1) A-D
(2) B-C
(3) A-C
(4) C-D
(5) D-B

32.(A) Exaggeration
(B) Reiteration
(C) Imagination
(D) Repetition
(1) A-D
(2) B-D
(3) C-D
(4) B-C
(5) A-B

33.(A) Implies
(B) Leads
(C) Confirms
(D) Connotes
(1) C-B
(2) A-D
(3) B-A
(4) D-C
(5) D-B
34.(A) Surfaced
(B) Nurtured
(C) Created
(D) Developed
(1) B-A
(2) B-C
(3) C-A
(4) C-D
(5) B-D

35.(A) Expanded
(B) Proclaimed
(C) Shrunk
(D) Facilitated
(1) A-D
(2) B-D
(3) C-D
(4) B-C
(5) A-C

36.(A) Indelible
(B) Erasable
(C) Insignificant
(D) Temporary
(1) A-C
(2) C-B
(3) A-B
(4) B-D
(5) C-D

37.(A) Intangible
(B) Restless
(C) Vast
(D) Meagre
(1) C-A
(2) C-D
(3) C-B
(4) B-A
(5) B-D
38.(A) Cutting
(B) Establishing
(C) Transferring
(D) Pruning
(1) A-B
(2) C-D
(3) B-C
(4) A-C
(5) A-D

39.(A) Fixed
(B) Stiff
(C) Indelible
(D) Soapy
(1) A-B
(2) A-D
(3) A-C
(4) B-C
(5) C-D

40.(A) Interminable
(B) Long
(C) Endless
(D) Interfering
(1) A-C
(2) B-C
(3) C-D
(4) A-B
(5) B-D







COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MODEL TWO
1. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ?
(A) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
(B) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
(C) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
(D) Only (B) and (C) (E) None of these
2. The blinking point which shows your position in the text is called—
(A) Blinker (B) Cursor     (C) Causer (D) Pointer    (E) None of these
3. For seeing the output, you use—
(A) Monitor (B) Keyboard           (C) Mouse (D) Scanner  (E) None of these
4. CDs are of which shape ?
(A) Square (B) Rectangular         (C) Round (D) Hexagonal           (E) None of these
5. A scanner scans—
(A) Pictures (B) Text      (C) Both Pictures and Text         (D) Neither Pictures nor Text
(E) None of these
6. A directory within in directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory (B) Junior Directory     (C) Part Directory (D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
7. For opening and closing of the file in Excel, you can use which bar ?
(A) Formatting (B) Standard       (C) Title (D) Formatting or Title   (E) None of these
8. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system ?
(A) User interface (B) Language translator           (C) Platform (D) Screen saver
(E) None of these
9. Computer language used on the Internet is—
(A) BASIC (B) COBOL    (C) Java (D) Pascal       (E) None of these
10. You click at B to make the text—
(A) Italics (B) Underlined            (C) Italics and Underlined           (D) Bold            (E) None of these
11. Which part is the ‘brain’ of the computer ?
(A) CPU (B) Monitor       (C) RAM (D) ROM          (E) None of these
12. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or
erased by the user is—
(A) Memory-only (B) Write-only   (C) Read-only (D) Run-only        (E) None of these
13. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(A) End (B) Start            (C) Turnoff (D) Restart   (E) None of these
14. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(A) My Folder (B) My Documents           (C) My Files (D) My Text            (E) None of these
15. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is a(n)—
(A) Supercomputer (B) Minicomputer      (C) Laptop (D) Server    (E) None of these
16. A Website’s main page is called its—
(A) Home Page (B) Browser Page          (C) Search Page (D) Bookmark   (E) None of these
17. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the—
(A) Driver (B) Terminal    (C) Prompt (D) Clipboard           (E) None of these
18. Changing an existing document is called ……… the document.
(A) creating (B) deleting (C) editing (D) adjusting (E) None of these
19. In a spreadsheet program the ………… contains related worksheets and documents.
(A) workbook (B) column            (C) cell (D) formula        (E) None of these
20. Which of the following is not an input device ?
(A) Keyboard (B) Monitor           (C) Joystick (D) Microphone                   (E) None of these
21. One Kilo Byte represents :
(A) 1024 bytes (B) 1000 bytes    (C) 100 bytes (D) 1064 bytes  (E) None of these
22. Basic building block for a digital circuit is :
(A) Word (B) Logic Gate            (C) Processor (D) BUS  (E) None of these
23. Which of the following is a logic gate?
(A) AND (B) OR (C) CPU (D) Both (A) & (B)         (E) None of these
24. The base of binary number is :
(A) 2 (B) 16       (C) 8 (D) 10       (E) None of these
25. ASCII stands for :
(A) American Standard Code for Institute Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) American Standard Code for Information Institute                  (D) All of these
(E) None of these
26. Who is called as "Father of Computers''?
(A) Charles Babage (B) Blaise Pascal     (C) Hollirth (D) All of these         (E) None of these
27. The first Digital Computer introduced, was    named as :
(A) Univac (B) Mark-I      (C) Eniac (D) All of these           (E) None of these
28. How many generations, computer can be      classified?
(A) 4 (B) 5         (C) 3 (D) 6         (E) None of these
29. First Generation Computers contain :
(A) Transistors (B) Vacume Tubes          (C) LSI (D) VLSI (E) None of these
30. II Generation Computers are made of :
(A) Vaccume Tubes (B) Transistors         (C) LSI (D) VLSI (E) None of these
31. IV Generation Computers contain :
(A) LSI (B) Vaccume Tubes        (C) All Technology (D) Transistors   (E) None of these
32. Vth Generation Computers are based on:
(A) Artificial Intelligence
(B) Programming Intelligence
(C) System Knowledge
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
33. Computers, combine both measuring and     counting, are called :
(A) Analog (B) Digital     (C) Hybrid (D) All of these          (E) None of these
34. In world today, most of the computers are :
(A) Digital (B) Hybrid     (C) Analog (D) Complex (E) None of these
35. In any computer installation, how many elements consists?
(A) 2 (B) 4         (C) 3 (D) 1         (E) None of these
36. Physical structure of computer is called :
(A) Software (B) Hardware          (C) Human ware (D) All of these (E) None of these
37. A computer can perform, which of the following        tasks?
(A) Computation (B) Communication       (C) Processing (D) All of these
(E) None of these
38. CPU stands for :
(A) Computer Processing Unit
(B) Central Processing Unit        (C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Communication Processing Unit       (E) None of these
39. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals?
(A) Analog computer (B) Digital computer  (C) both (D) Digilog Computer
(E) None of these
40. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now?
(A) Mainframe (B) Microcomputer
(C) Minicomputer (D) Both (B) & (C)
(E) None of these

NUMERICAL ABILITY--TWO
Qs. 1-5. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
1.   Sq.root of 6561  +  9  =  ?
(1) 90 (2) 99 (3) 108   (4) 117 (5) None of these
2. What is the interest received on a principal of Rs450 for 2 years if the interest received on Re 1 after four years at the same rate of simple interest is Rs 0.40?
(1) Rs 90
(2) Rs 180
(3) Rs 36
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
3.         If the production of a factory grows at a rate of 8% p.a. what will be its production for the year 2012 if its production in 2010 was 70 lakh tonnes?
(1) 63.48 lakh tonnes
(2) 81.68 lakh tonnes
(3) 81 lakh tonnes
(4) 80.68 lakh tonnes
(5) None of these
4. 12% of 580 + ? = 94
(1) 26.4 (2) 24.4 (3) 30.4 (4) 28.4 (5) None of these
5. (3692 + 1863 + 2410) ÷ 125 = ?
(1) 63.82 (2) 63.92 (3) 63.42   (4) 63.72 (5) None of these

Qs. 6-10. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions.
6. 685.59 – ? = 607.88 –351.46
(1) 449.28 (2) 419.17 (3) 429.17  (4) 439.28 (5) None of these
7.     8305   X    (   1/7   X 1/5  X  840)
(1) 193920 (2) 199320 (3) 199230
(4) 192390 (5) None of these
8. (87)2= (61)2 + (62)2 + ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(4) 4 (5) None of these
9.         1884456 divided by  52346   =   sq.root of ?
(1) 1296 (2) 1156 (3) 1024   (4) 1444 (5) None of these
10. (4000 + ?) ÷ 23 = 211
(1) 843 (2) 753 (3) 863  (4) 743 (5) None of these
Qs. 11-14. What will come in place of the question  mark (?) in the following questions? 
11. 764521 – 642436 + 179380 = ?
(1) 301465 (2) 301468 (3) 301488  (4) 301456 (5) None of these
12.`   1547616  divided by 700 divided by 658  =
(1) 3.56 (2) 3.36 (3) 3.76
(4) 3.46 (5) None of these
13. 3565 ÷ 23 + 4675 ÷ ? = 430
(1) 19 (2) 17 (3) 21     (4) 23 (5) None of these
14. ?% of 8745 = 5159.55
(1) 49 (2) 54 (3) 57   (4) 47 (5) None of these
15.    In a triangle ABC, if a = 2b and A = 3B, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) The triangle is obtuse-angled.
(2) The triangle is acute-angled, but not right-angled.
(3) The triangle is right-angled.
(4) The triangle is isosceles, but not obtuse-angled.
(5) None of these.
Qs. 16-20. What will come in place of the question  mark (?) in the following questions? 
16. 1287935 – ? = 262041
(1) 1109584 (2) 1054982 (3) 1125804   (4) 1025894 (5) None of these
17. 0.25 ÷ 0.10 × 0.04 + 0.006 = ?
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.006 (3) 0.106   (4) 0.016 (5) None of these
18.      7/8    X    64  / 49   +  ½ =   ?
1)  23/ 14     2)  14/ 23                3)  15/23           4)   16/23
5)  None of these.
19.        700 %  of  35  =  ?
(1) 245 (2) 100 (3) 400   (4) 625 (5) None of these
20. 874 ÷ 19 + 85 × 21 – 762 = ?
(1) 1069 (2) 1609 (3) 1960   (4) 1096 (5) None of these
21. The length of a rectangle, which is 25 cms is equal to the length of a square and the area of the rectangle is 125 cms less than the area of the square. What is the breadth of the rectangle?
(1) 15 cms (2) 20 cms (3) 12 cms   (4) 10 cms (5) None of these
22. In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.
150 450 750 1060 1350 1650 1950
(1) 1060 (2) 1950 (3) 450   (4) 1350 (5) 750
23. A car travels at the speed of 85 kms/hr and reaches its destination in 5 hours. What is the distance covered by the car?
(1) 485 kms (2) 325 kms (3) 450 kms  (4) 425 kms (5) None of these
24. How many rotations will the hour-hand of a clock  complete in 72 hours?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9    (4) 12 (5) None of these
25. Students attending the flag hoisting function in  a school are given 2 chocolates each. How many such  chocolates should be ordered if 6354 students attended the  function?
(1) 12,608 (2) 12,808 (3) 12,408   (4) 12,508 (5) None of these
26.   ¼ of ¾ of a number is 363.  What is the square root of that number?
(1) 40 (2) 88 (3) 44   (4) 80 (5) None of these
27. A man walks at the speed of 4 kms/hr and runs at  the speed of 8 kms/hr. How much time will the man require to cover a distance of 24 kms, if he completes half of his journey walking (12 kms) and half of his journey running?
(1) 3 hours (2) 6 hours (3) 12 hours (4) 5 hours (5) None of these
28. Three friends divide an amount of Rs 45,000, such that one of them takes 1/4th of the total amount and the other two divide the rest of the amount equally amongst themselves. What is the ratio of amount taken by one of the
friends to the total amount taken by the other two friends together?
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 3 : 2   (4) 2 : 3 (5) None of these
29. A company pays a rent of Rs 25,000 per month for  office space to its owner. But if the company pays the annual  rent at the beginning of the year the owner gives a discount  of 5% on the total annual rent? What is the annual
amount the company pays to the owner after the discount?
(1) Rs 2,85,000 (2) Rs 2,75,000 (3) Rs 3,00,000 
(4) Rs 2,95,000 (5) None of these
30. In a temple, the devotees are made to stand in 5 rows before entering the temple and only 265 devotees can stand in each row. On a certain day there were 4 rows of devotees at the beginning of the day, 2 rows of devotees at mid-day and 5 rows of devotees at the end of the day. Each row had the full capacity. How many devotees visited the temple on that day?
(1) 1060 (2) 2830 (3) 2925   (4) 2815 (5) 2915
31.   405   X  35   =   ?
(1) 14175 (2)14235 (3)15435  (4) 14225 (5) None of these
32. What is the area of a circle with the circumference of 88 cms?
(1) 618 sq cms (2) 516 sq cms  (3) 600 sq cms (4) 615 sq cms
(5) None of these
33. A student scores 55% marks in 8 papers of 100 marks each. He scores 15% of his total marks in English.  How much does he score in English?
(1) 55 (2) 66 (3) 77  (4) 44 (5) None of these
34. What should come in place of the qustion-mark (?) in the following number series?
5690 5121 4552 3983 3414 2845 ?
(1) 2276 (2) 2516  (3) 2746 (4) 2356  (5) None of these
35. Car ‘X’ covers a distance of 385 kms in 7 hours and car ‘Y’ covers a distance of 715 kms in 13 hrs. What is the difference in the speed of the two cars?
(1) 2 kms/hr (2) 1 km/hr  (3) 3 kms/hr (4) 5 kms/hr  (5) None of these
36. The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer?
(1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 21 (4) 23 (5) None of these
37. Each child from a certain school can make 5 items of handicraft in a day. If 1125 handicraft items are to be displayed in an exhibition then in how many days can 25 children make these items?
(1) 6 days (2) 9 days (3) 8 days (4) 7 days (5) None of these
38. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customers 15% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs 9,039 for a sofa set, then what is the cost price of the sofa set?
(1) Rs 7,680 (2) Rs 7,860 (3) Rs 7,880 (4) Rs 7,660 (5) None of these
39. While withdrawing an amount of Rs 49,350 a customer by mistake collects Rs 48,150. The remaining amount is deposited back to his account by the bank, which shows the balance of Rs 25,376. What will be the customer’s
balance after depositing the remaining amount?
(1) Rs 26,576 (2) Rs 26,676 (3) Rs 26,586 (4) Rs 26,686 (5) None of these
40. 20% of the total cost of a plot with an area of 395 sq ft is Rs 78,210. What is the rate of per sq ft of the plot?
(1) Rs 1,020 (2) Rs 999 (3) Rs 1,000  (4) Rs 990 (5) None of these







                                                REASONING
Qs. 1-6. Find the odd-man out:
1. (1) Mars (2) Apollo (3) Venus (4) Mercury (5) Pluto
2. (1) coconut (2) peanut (3) walnut (4) almond (5) cashewnut
3. (1) elm (2) ivy (3) oak (4) pine (5) banyan
4. (1) sitar (2) violin (3) harmonium (4) guitar (5) sarod
5. (1) penguin (2) ostrich (3) emu (4) kiwi (5) flemingo
6. (1) cataract (2) glaucoma (3) conjunctivitis (4) squint (5) myopia
Qs. 7-12. Letters in the given questions follow a certain arrangement. Four of these are alike. You have to find out the one that is different.
7. (1) DCGF (2) UTXW (3) KJNM (4) POTS (5) EDHG
8. (1) FGIL (2) JKMQ (3) NOQT  (4) UVXA (5) BCEH
9. (1) CAXZ (2) FHUS (3) DFVT  (4) JLQO (5) BDYW
10. (1) KJHL (2) ZYWA (3) TSQU  (4) UTRV (5) MLKN
11. (1) DF10 (2) QS36 (3) KM24  (4) PR36 (5) JL22
12. (1) HgdE (2) MliJ (3) WvsT  (4) ZyvX (5) TspQ
Qs. 13-16. Coding-decoding:
13. If CRIMINAL is written as JMBKDQJL then AMBITION will be written as:
(1) UHPMPAJH (2) UHPMBNDJ (3) UHPMCLHB (4) UHPMBLCH (5) UHPMBKAJ
14. If STRING is coded as TVUMSM, then the code for CINEMA will be:
(1) DKPHQG (2) DJQHQE (3) DKQIRG (4) EKPGOC (5) EKRJSH
15. If CLEAN is written as 3 12 5 1 14,
PRINT would be:
(1) 16 18 9 14 20 (2) 16 19 9 14 21  (3) 16 17 9 14 20 (4) 16 18 10 14 20
(5) 16 18 9 14 19
16. If BROAD is written as 12345 and CRIME is  62789, how would you write DECADE?
(1) 695469 (2) 586458 (3) 587458 (4) 675467 (5) 596459
Qs. 17-20. According to a certain code:
kin pin din min means Richa is good singer.
gin bin fin pin means Hema is a dancer.
din tin zin fin means Richa Hema performed together.
min gin tin hin lin means A singer performed on stage.
17. What is the code for Hema?
(1) gin (2) pin (3) fin (4) bin (5) can’t say
18. What does ‘kin’ mean?
(1) good (2) singer (3) is (4) Richa (5) can’t say
19. A singer dancer would be coded as:
(1) bin gin min (2) bin min din (3) min din pin (4) fin kin pin (5) can’t say
20. What is the code for stage?
(1) tin (2) hin (3) min (4) lin (5) can’t say
Qs. 21-25. In questions given below, the two words in each one have a certain relationship. Your task is to find out the word for the third word with
similar relationship from the options given.
21. carelessness : accident : : drought : ?
(1) rainfall (2) famine (3) relief (4) loan (5) calamity
22. laughter : smile : : fracture : ?
(1) first-aid (2) bore (3) doctor (4) sprain (5) pain
23. devotee : atheist : : faithful : ?
(1) master (2) gracious (3) trustworthy  (4) disloyal (5) dog
24.Hindus: Temple  : :  ?   :   Fire Temple
(1) Sikhs (2) Muslims (3) Parsis  (4) Christians (5) None of these.
25. whale : shark : : emerald : ?
(1) ruby (2) gem (3) ornaments (4) stone (5) precious
26. Some girls are standing in a line facing north. Priya is 19th from the left and Meena 22ndfrom the right. If they changed places Priya will be 12th from the left. How many girls are there in the line?
(1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34 (5) None of these
Qs. 27 to 30. Seven boys DGMPQRT participated in a race. Q was behind T but ahead M who was a few paces ahead of R. G and P were behind D who was behind R.
Now answer the questions given below on the basis of this information.
27. Who was the winner?
(1) Q (2) M (3) R (4) D (5) None of these
28. Who was fifth in the race?
(1) G (2) R (3) D  (4) M (5) None of these
29. How many boys were there between Q and D?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3  (4) None (5) None of these
30. Who was the last?
(1) P (2) R (3) G
(4) Either G or P (5) None of these
Qs. 31-36. In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
31. 1. Some fans are coolers and all coolers are refrigerators.
2. Some refrigerators are heaters and all heaters are bulbs.
Conclusions:
I. Some bulbs are refrigerators.
II. Some heaters are coolers.
III. Some refrigerators are fans.
(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Only III follows.
(3) Only I and III follow.
(4) Either I or III follows.
(5) All the three follow.
Statements:
32. 1. All girls are fairies and all fairies are gnomes.
2. Some gnomes are devils and all devils are angels.
Conclusions:
I. Some girls are devils.
II. Some fairies are angels.
III. No angel is fairy.

(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Either II or III follows.
(3) None follows.
(4) Only II and III follow.
(5) Either I or III follows.
Statements:
33. 1. Some birds are dogs while some cats are birds.
2. No cat is a dog but all cats are elephants.
Conclusions:
I. Some elephants are birds.
II. Some dogs are elephants.
III. Every bird is either dog or cat.
(1) Only I follows.
(2) Only either II or III follows.
(3) Only I and III follow.
(4) Only III follows.
(5) None follows.
Statements:
34. 1. All poems are stories and all stories are epics.
2. All epics are either novels or dictionaries.
Conclusions:
I. Some dictionaries are stories.
II. Some poems are novels.
III. Some epics are poems.
(1) Either I or II follows.
(2) Only III follows.
(3) Only I and III follow.
(4) Only II and III follow.
(5) Only I and II follow.
Statements:
35. 1. Copper is costlier than gold but cheaper than silver which is less expensive than iron.
2. Brass is costlier than gold.
Conclusions:
I. Brass is cheaper than copper.
II. Copper is cheaper than iron.
III. Brass is more expensive than silver.
(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Only II and III follow.
(3) Either II or III follow.
(4) Only II follows.
(5) Only I follows.
Statements:
36. 1. All spoons are dishes and all dishes are glasses.
2. All chairs are plates and all plates are spoons.
Conclusions:
I. Some glasses are plates.
II. Some dishes are not chairs.
III. All spoons are glasses.
(1) Only I and II follow.
(2) Only II and III follow.
(3) Only I and III follow.
(4) Only one of the three follows.
(5) All the three follow.
Qs. 37-38. Arrange the following in proper order:
37. (1) FIR (2) crime (3) investigation (4) punishment (5) court
(1) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (3) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
(5) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
38. (1) measurement (2) stitch (3) wear (4) cloth (5) cut
(1) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 (2) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 (3) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 (4) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
(5) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
Qs. 39-40. The following questions are based on the information given below:
Mohan started from his home facing the rising sun and went four km then he turned right and after 2 km again turned right. His friend Shyam was coming from the opposite direction and after 2 km they met half way. Shyam turned back and they both started for Shyam’s house. After going 2 km they turned left, walked for 2 km and reached Shyam’s house.
39. Which direction was Shyam facing when he started from his house?
(1) north (2) east (3) south  (4) west (5) can’t say
40. How far is Mohan’s house from Shyam’s as the crow flies?
(1) 2 km (2) 3 km (3) 4 km  (4) 5 km (5) None of these
                                    **********************************















 BANKING RELATED GENERAL AWARENESS TWO
1. Through which one of the following sources domestic funds are raised by Companies ? 
1. IPO only 
2. FPO only 
3. Commercial papers. 
(A) Only 3 
(B) All 1, 2 and 3 
(C) Only 1 and 3 
(D) Only 1 
(E) Only 1 and 2 

2. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Govt. wants Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs ? 
(A) To reduce liquidity in the market 
(B) It is as per Basel II requirements 
(C) It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives 
(D) It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown 
(E) None of these 

3. According to World Economic Forum, which one of the following risks is the greatest risk faced by the world in the year 2011 ? 
(A) Credit Risk 
(B) Country Risk 
(C) Counterparty Risk 
(D) Sovereign Default Risk 
(E) None of these 

4. Which one of the following decisions has been taken by Govt. in respect of MGNREGA ? 
(A) The wages should be revised by the State Governments 
(B) The wages are to be revised by Planning Commission 
(C) The District Authorities who allot work can give differential wages 
(D) The wages shall be linked to inflation 
(E) None of these 

5. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks ? 
(A) Fixed rate of interest charged by banks 
(B) Floating rate of interest charged by banks 
(C) Rate of interest in the initial period is less and goes up subsequently 
(D) Rate of interest in the initial period is more and it goes down subsequently 
(E) None of these 

6. On which one of the following subjects Pranab Sen Committee has submitted its recommendations to the Govt. of India ? 
(A) MGNREGA 
(B) Food Security 
(C) Inflation 
(D) Food processing industries 
(E) Definition of slums 
 

7. Expand the term CCEA as used in administrative circles— 
(A) Cabinet Committee on External Affairs 
(B) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs 
(C) Cabinet Council on External Affairs 
(D) Cabinet Council on Economic Affairs 
(E) None of these 


8. What the full form of the term LIBOR as used in financial banking sectors ? 
(A) Local Indian Bank Offered Rate 
(B) London-India Bureau of Regulations 
(C) Liberal International Bank Official Ratio 
(D) London Inter Bank Offered Rate 
(E) None of these 

9. In which one of the following States, Patratu Thermal Power Plant is proposed to be set up ? 
(A) Madhya Pradesh 
(B) Bihar 
(C) Jharkhand 
(D) West Bengal 
(E) Kerala 

10. Who is Montek Singh Ahluwalia ? 
(A) Chairman, Planning Commission 
(B) Dy. Chairman, Planning Commission 
(C) Cmmerce Secretary, GOI 
(D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister 
(E) None of these 

11. Expand the term FSDC which is used in financial sectors ? 
(A) Financial Security and Development Council 
(B) Financial Stability and Development Council 
(C) Fiscal Security and Development Council 
(D) Fiscal Stability and Development Council 
(E) None of these 

12. According to US Department of Agriculture, which one of the following countries in the world is the largest producer of dairy products ? 
(A) Australia 
(B) USA 
(C) China 
(D) Norway 
(E) India 

13. Which one of the following is largest producer of power in India ? 
(A) Reliance Power 
(B) Tata Power 
(C) National Hydro Power 
(D) Adani Power 
(E) NTPC 
14. For which one of the following reasons Basel II norms are to be followed by Commercial Banks ? 
(A) Risk management 
(B) Adoption of international accounting standards 
(C) Restriction on bonus payments to bank executives 
(D) Transparency in disclosures 
(E) None of these 
15. Which one of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ? 
(A) RBI 
(B) NABARD 
(C) SIDBI 
(D) IBA 
(E) None of these 
16. Who is Robert Zoelick ? 
(A) EX IMF Chief 
(B)Ex  World Bank President (Ex)
(C) Ex ADB President 
(D) Ex Chief UNIDO 
(E) None of these 
17
. Growth for 2011-12 has been -8.8% was the news in major news papers. This means which of the following grew at this rate during that period?
A) GDP
B) Money supply
C) Foreign Exchange Reserves
D) Inflation
E) Price Index
18
. What is the full form of  LAF?
A) Liquid Advance & Finance
B) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
C) Legal Adjournment Facility
D) Local Advance Finance
E) Late Arrival of Finance
19
. Headquarter of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is in?
A)Geneva
B) Paris
C) London
D) Manila
E) Washington DC
20
. As per newspaper reports ANZ was given licence to open branch in Mumbai. ANZ is a bank based in?
A) Australia
B) Argentina
C) Afghanistan
D) Angola
E) Austria
21. Whenever somebody needs foreign-currency against Indian Rupee, banks give equivalent amount of desired currency based on prevalent?
A) Bank Rate
B) Currency rate
C) policy rate
D) exchange rate
E) base rate
22. Banks recover term loan from the parties in EMIs. What the letter 'E' represents in the term?
A) Easy
B) Effective
C) Equated
D) Essential
E) Economical
23. Which of the following is NOT a scheduled Commercial Bank?
A) IDBI Bank
B) Axis Bank
C) HDFC Bank
D) NABARD
E) Kotak Mahindra Bank
24. POSCO is a company which manufactures?
A) Cement
B) Penna products
C) Sugar
D) Textiles
E) Steel
25. The financial results of banks and other organizations normally are expressed in quarters. What does Q -1 means?
A) Results of January - March
B) Performance during April-June
C) Profits during July -September
D) The period when the profits were highest
E) None
26. Which of the following certainly is an effort in the direction of Financial Inclusion?
A) Internet Banking
B) Anywhere Banking
C) No-frills Accounts
D) Foreign Currency Accounts
E) All of these
27. Wages to workers of which of the following is now revised and are based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI)?
A) MGNREGA
B) Anganwadi workers
C) Teachers involved in Operation Black Board
D) Health workers in Rural Areas
E) None of these
28. Which of the following Acts is specially launched to facilitate banks in recovery of bad loans?
A) RBI Act
B) Banking Regulation Act
C) Companies Act
D) Income Tax Act
E) SARFAESI Act

29. The financial assistance or loans of Rs.10,000/- by a bank to a very  small borrower will be called?
A) Business finance
B) Govt Finance
C) Micro finance
D) Small finance
E) KYC finance
30. What does letter 'P' denote in the term 'PAN' issued by the Income Tax Department?
A) Provisional
B) Private
C) Personal
D) Permanent
E) Postal
31. The Head Office of the Unique Identification Authority of India is located in ?
A) Bangalore
B) Mumbai
C) New Delhi
D) Chennai
E) Hyderabad
32. Who amongst the following can NOT work as a Business Correspondent, as given in the scheme launched by the banks?
A) Kirana Store
B) Post Office
C) Self Help Group
D) A Bank Officer
E) Cooperative Society
33. Some banks are financing big projects like construction of Roads/Bridges etc. Financing to such projects means banks are helping exactly in?
A) Infrastructure Development B) Project Management
C) Developing Core Sector Industry
D) Financial Inclusion
E) All of these

34. As we know lot of new concepts are being used in the field of banking these days. Which of the following is NOT one such concept/product directly associated with banks?
A) E-payment
B) SMS Alert
C) ATM Debit Card
D) Demat Account
E) Number Portability
35. Which of the following is NOT a Nationalized Bank ?
A) UBI
B) CBI
C) Yes Bank
D) Syndicate Bank
E) Indian Bank
36. As predicted by the World Bank, Indian economy will grow faster than which of the following countries in 2012?
A) China
B) USA
C) Japan
D) France
E) Germany
37. Inflation has become a major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Government of India/ RBI norm-ally take to control the same?
1) Fixation of Maximum Prices of the Commodities
2) System of Dual prices
3) Increase in Supply of food grains
4) Control on credit and liquidity in market
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 2, 3 and 4
E) All of these
38. Which state government announced that each village in the State with a population of 250 would be declared a "revenue village" for facilitating its development ?
A) West Bengal
B) Orissa
C) Rajasthan
D) Haryana
E) None

39. The Government of India has set up Price Stabilisation Fund for four commodities. Which of the following is NOT covered by the scheme ?
A) Tobacco
B) Coffee
C) Rubber
D) Tea
E) Jute
40. In which one of the following states, village level marketing platform has been set up for the first time in the country?
A) Haryana
B) Maharashtra
C) Gujarat
D) Bihar
E) Kerala
            ***************************************



















English Language—MODEL TWO



ANSWERS
1. (4)
2.(4)
3.(1)
4. (1)
5. (4)
6. (4)
7. (1)
8. (3)
9. (4)
10. (3)
11. (3)
12. (4)
13. (4)
14. (2)
15. (4)
16. (2) B
17. (1) A
18. (4) D
19. (5) E
20. (3) C
21. (3)
22. (4)
23. (1)
24. (2)
25. (5)
26.(1)
27. (3)
28. (3)
29. (1)
30. (5)
31. (3) A-C
32. (2) B-D
33. (2) A-D
34. (5) B-D
35. (5) A-C
36. (3) A-B
37. (2) C-D
38. (5) A-D
39. (1) A-B
40. (1) A-C




                        ************
COMPUTER knowledge – MODEL TWO
1.A       2.B       3.A       4.C       5.C       6.D       7.C       8.A       9.C       10.D
11.A     12.C     13.B     14.B     15.D     16.A     17.C     18.C     19.A     20.B
21.A     22.B     23.D     24.A     25.B     26.A     27.B     28.B     29.B     30.B
31.A     32.A     33.C     34.A     35.C     36.B     37.D     38.B     39.B     40.B
                                    *************
ANSWERS—NUMERICAL ABILITY TWO
1.(1)      2.(1)      3.(5)      4.(2)      5.(4)      6.(3)      7.(2)      8.(4)      9.(1)      10.(5)
11.(1)    12.(2)    13.(2)    14.(5)    15.(3)    16.(4)    17.(3)    18.(1)    19.(1)    20.(1)
21.(2)    22.(1)    23.(4)    24.(2)    25.(5)    26.(3)    27.(5)    28.(1)    29.(1)    30.(5)
31.(3)    32.(5)    33.(2)    34.(1)    35.(5)    36.(3)    37.(2)    38.(2)    39.(1)    40.(4)
                                    *********************
1 .  (1)   sq.root of 6561 = 81 +9 = 90
2.    (1)  simple interest on Rs.1 for four years is Rs.0.40. That means rate of interest is 10%
               So. 450  x10x 2 /100  = Rs.90
3.    (5)   Working out it comes to 81.648 tonnes.
4.    (2)   580 x 12/100 +24.4 = 90
 5. (4)   (3692 + 1863 + 2410) ÷ 125 =   Addition will give 7965 and then multiply by thousand(7965000 then divide by 8)
6.(3)  685.59 – ? = 607.88 –351.46.    607.88-351.46 =256.42
             685.59 -256.42 = 429.17
7.(2)  8305   X    (   1/7   X 1/5  X  840)  =  8305 x 24 = 199320
8.  (4)  (87)2= (61)2 + (62)2 + ?.    87 square = 7569
               61 square + 62 square = 7565. Ans is 4.  Actually this type of problems you can take a chance. In 87 square last digit is 9. 
      61 square + 62 square will end with 5 (1 +4) so balance must be 4.
9. (1) 1296; the square of 36.
10. (5) 853.
11.(1)  764521 – 642436 + 179380 = ?  Apply BODMAS principle  you will get 301465.
12.(2)`   1547616  divided by 700 divided by 658  =  3.36
13.(2)  3565 ÷ 23 + 4675 ÷ ? = 430.  First divide 3565 by 23  . we will get 155
    430-155 = 275. so. 4675 divided by 275 = 17.
 14. (5) 59%   . ?% of 8745 = 5159.55.   5159.55 divided by 8745 x 100 = 59%
15  (3)
16.  (4)  1287935 – ? = 262041,  1287935-262041=1025894
17.(3)  0.25 ÷ 0.10 × 0.04 + 0.006 = ? apply BODMAS Principle.
              0.25 divided by 0.10 = 2.5. Then 2.5 x 0.04 = 0.1 +0.006 = 0.106
18. (1)     7/8    X    64  / 49   +  ½ =   ?.   7/8 x 64/49  = 8/7. 
             8/7  +  1/2 =  23/14.
19.(1)    700 %  of  35  =  ?.  35 x 7 = 245  (700% of a number is required means multiply the number by 7)
20. (1) 46 + 1785 – 762.
21. (2) Area of the square 25 ×25 = 625 sq cm, 625 – 125 = 500.
Area of the rectangle 500 sq cm, 500 ÷ 25 = 20
22. (1) Should be 1050 as 300 is added to numbers.
23.  (4)  Distance = Speed x Time.  85 x 5 =  425
24. (2) One rotation in 12 hours.
25. (5) 6354 × 2 = 12708.
26.  (3)   363 x 4 x4 divided by 3 =  121 x 4 x 4 sq.froot = 11 x 4 = 44
27. (5) 4 hrs 30 mts. 3 hrs + 1.30 hrs = 4.30 hrs
28  (1)   Amount is immaterial.  1/4  :  3/4   =  1 : 3
29.  (1)   Monthly rent = Rs.25000.  Annual rent = 25000 x 12 = Rs.300000
         Applying 5% discount   300000 x 5/100  = 15000
          300000-15000  = Rs.285000
30 (5) 265 × (4 + 2 + 5)
31. (3) 12 – 3 = 9.
32. (5) It is 616 sq cm. Apply 2πr for finding out radius (14 cm)
then apply πr2 for finding area.
33.  (2)    55 x 8  = 440   .   440 x 15/100  =  66.
34. (1) Go on deducting 569 from numbers.
35. (5) None. Both have a speed of 55 km per hour.
36. (3) 21 × 22
37.  (2)  Each child can make 5 in a day.  1125  divided by 5 x 25 = 9 days
38.  (2)    9039 x 100 divided by 115  =  Rs.7860
39. (1) 49350 – 48150 + 25376.
40.  (4)   78210  x 5  divided by 395  = Rs.990
                        ****************************************


ANSWERS--REASONING
1.(2)      2.(2)      3.(2)      4.(3)      5.(5)      6.(4)      7.(4)      8.(2)      9.(3)      10.(5)
11.(4)    12.(4)    13.(4)    14.(3)    15.(1)    16.(5)    17.(3)    18.(1)    19.(1)    20.(5)
21.(2)    22.(4)    23.(4)    24.(3)    25.(1)    26.(3)    27.(5)    28.(3)    29.(2)    30.(4)
31.(3)    32.(2)    33.(1)    34.(2)    35.(4)    36.(5)    37.(4)    38.(3)    39.(1)    40.(3)
                                    ***************************************************
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS.
1. (2) All the others are planets.
2. (2) All the others are obtained from trees, this one
is dug out.
3. (2) It is the only creeper among trees.
4. (3) This instrument has keys, all the others have strings.
5. (5) All the others are flightless.
6. (4) All the others are diseases of the eye, this one a disorder.
7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (5)
11. (4) Give number to letters according to their place in the alphabetical order and add the numbers.
12. (4)
13. (4) Write the first four letters after the last four, TIONAMBI. Code 1, 3, 5 and 7 with the next letter
and the remaining ones with the preceding letter from the alphabets.
14. (3) Increase the gap for codes by one.
15. (1) Codes are according to the position of the letters in the alphabet.
16. (5) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1)
20. (5) Could be hin or lin.
21. (2) They have cause and effect relationship.
22. (4) The relationship is that of higher and lower intensity.
23. (4) The two are opposites.
25. (1) Both belong to the same category.
26. (3)
27-30. T Q M R D P/G G/P
27. (5) T 28. (3) 29. (2) 30. (4)
31-36. These questions are best answered by drawing Venn diagram and reaching a fool-proof conclusion.
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (4) 36. (5)
37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3)
                                    *******************************
GENERAL AWARENESS TWO
1.D       2.D       3.D       4.A       5.C       6.E       7.B       8.D       9.C       10.B
11.A     12.E     13.C     14.A     15.B     16.B     17.A     18.B     19.E     20.A
21.E     22.C     23.D     24.E     25.B     26.C     27.A     28.D     29.C     30.D
31.C     32.D     33.A     34.E     35.C     36.A     37.E     38.C     39.E     40.C
****************

BANK CLERKS PAPER POSTED IN FACEBOOK ON 9 DECEMBER 2012 Reviewed by sambasivan srinivasan on 4:06:00 PM Rating: 5

1 comment:

Anonymous said...

28. Which of the following Acts is specially launched to facilitate banks in recovery of bad loans?
A) RBI Act
B) Banking Regulation Act
C) Companies Act
D) Income Tax Act
E) SARFAESI Act
sir answer of this question may be E please confirm this question

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