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SBI PO MODEL PAPER TWO


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DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION

Directions (1-5): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follows:
Number (N) of Candidates (In Lakhs) Appearing for An Entrance Examination From Six Different States and the Percentage (P) of Candidates Clearing the Same Over the Years.
State


Year
A
B
C
D
E
F
N
P
N
P
N
P
N
P
N
P
N
P
2004
1.23
42
1.04
51
1.11
32
1.32
24
1.23
36
1.33
31
2005
1.05
43
1.12
62
1.07
47
1.15
49
1.18
55
1.24
24
2006
2.04
38
1.48
32
1.08
28
1.96
35
1.42
49
1.58
26
2007
1.98
41
2.07
43
1.19
30
1.88
46
1.36
47
1.79
29
2008
1.66
53
1.81
50
1.56
42
1.83
60
1.73
57
1.86
34
2009
1.57
39
1.73
36
1.64
52
2.01
56
1.69
55
1.95
37

1.         What is the respective ratio of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same year?
            a) 221 : 148       b) 218 : 143       c) 148 : 221       d) 143 : 218       e) None of these
2.         In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D?
            a) 2008             b) 2006             c) 2009             d) 2007             e) None of these
3.         What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year 2007?
            a) 186820          b) 11682            c) 1868200        d) 116820          e) None of these
4.         What is the total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from States E and F together in the year 2006?
            a) 16160            b) 110660          c) 11066            d) 1106600        e) None of these
5.         What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in the years 2007, 2008 and 2009 together?
            a) 1907 2           b) 18666 1         c) 18666 1         d) 1866 1           e) None of these
                        3                        3                      3                    3
            Directions (6 - 10): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
            An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
6.         If your marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue?
            a) 4                   b) 69                 c) 11                 d) 22                 e) None of these
               15                       91                     15                       91
7.         If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are red?
            a) 1                   b) 1                   c)  2                  d) 2                   e) None of these
                6                        3                       15                       5
8.         If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that two are blue and one is yellow?
            a) 3                   b) 1                   c) 18                 d)  7                  e) None of these
               91                       5                       455                    15
9.         If your marble are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green, two are blue and one is red?
            a)  24                b) 13                 c) 11                 d)  1                  e) None of these
                455                    35                      15                   3
10.        If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are yellow?
            a) 5                   b) 1                   c) 1                   d)  4                  e) None of these
               91                      35                       3                      105
            Directions (11 - 15): Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follows:
            Breakup of Number of Employees working in Different Departments of an Organisation, the Number of Males and the Number of Employees Who Recently Got Promoted In Each Department Break-UP of Employees Working In Different Departments:
Total Number of Employees
= 3,600
Employees Working in Different Departments

As see Annexure





Break-UP of Number of Males In Each Department Total Number of Males In the Organisation = 2,040 Break - UP of Number of Males Working In Each Department

As See Annexure





Break UP of Number of Employees who recently got promoted In Each Department
Total Number of Employees who got promoted = 1,200
Number of Employees Who Recently Got Promoted From Each Department

As See Annexure





11.        If half of the number of employees who got promoted from the IT department where males, what was the approximate percentage of males who got promoted from the IT department?
            a) 61                 b) 29                 c) 54                 d) 42                 e) 38
12.        What is the total number of females working in the Production and Marketing departments together?
            a) 468               b) 812               c) 582               d) 972               e) None of these
13.        How many females work in the Accounts department?
            a) 618               b) 592               c) 566               d) 624               e) None of these
14.        The total number of employees who got promoted from all the departments together was what percent of the total number of employees working in all the departments together? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
            a) 56                 b) 21                 c) 45                 d) 33                 e) 51
15.        The number of employees who got promoted from the HR department was what percent of the total number of employees working in that department? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
            a) 36.18            b) 30.56            c) 47.22            d) 28.16            e) None of these
            Directions (16 - 20): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Percent Rise in Profit of Two Companies Over The Year

As see Annexure



16.        If the profit earned by Company L in the year 2005 was Rs.1.84 lakhs, what was the profit earned by the company in the year 2006?
            a) Rs.2.12 lakhs            b) Rs.2.3 lakhs              c) Rs.2.04 lakhs
            d) Cannot be determined                                     e) None of these
17.        If the profit earned by Company M in the year 2008 was Rs.3. 63 lakhs, what was the amount of profit earned by it in the year 2006?
            a) Rs.2.16 lakhs            b) Rs.1.98 lakhs            c) Rs.2.42 lakhs
            d) Cannot be determined                                     e) None of these
18.        What is the average percent rise in profit of Company L over call the years together?
            a) 15 1              b) 25 1              c) 18 5              d) 21 5              e) None of these 
                     3                        3                        6                        6
19.        Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the above graph?
            a) Company M made the highest profit in the year 2009    
            b) Company L made least profit in the year 2005.
            c) The respective ratio between the profits earned by Company L and M in the year 2006 was 6:5
            d) Company L made the highest profit in the year 2008
            e) All are true
20.        What is the percentage increase in percent rise in profit of Company M in the year 2009 from the previous year?
            a) 25                 b) 15                 c) 50                 d) 75                 e) None of these
            Directions (21 - 25): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
            A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7:5 respectively. All the students are enrolled in different types of hobby classes, viz: Singing, Dancing and Painting, One - fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Twenty percent of the girls are enrolled in only painting classes. Ten percent of the boys are enrolled in only Singing classes. Twenty four percent of the girls are enrolled in both Singing and Dancing classes together. The number of girls enrolled in only Singing classes is two hundred percent of the boys enrolled in the same. One - thirteenth of the boys are enrolled in all the three class together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled in Dancing and Painting classes together to the girls enrolled in the same is 2 : 1 respectively. Ten percent of the girls are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight percent of the girls in the same is 2 : 1 respectively. Ten percent of the girls are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight percent of the girls are enrolled in both Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are enrolled in all the three classes together. The number of boys enrolled in Singing and Dancing classes together is fifty percent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only painting classes.
21.        What is the total number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing?
            a) 318               b) 364               c) 292               d) 434               e) None of these
22.        Total number of girls enrolled in the Singing is approximately what percent of the total number of students in the school?
            a) 37                 b) 19                 c) 32                 d) 14                 e) 26
23.        What is the total number of students enrolled in all the three classes together?
            a) 135               b) 164               c) 187               d) 142               e) None of these
24.        Number of girls enrolled in only Dancing classes is what percent of the boys enrolled in the same? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
            a) 38.67            b) 35.71            c) 41.83            d) 28.62            e) None f these
25.        What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting classes to the number of boys enrolled in the same?
            a) 77 : 26          b) 21 : 73          c) 26 : 77          d) 73 : 21          e) None of these
            Directions (26 - 30): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
            Profit (In Rs.        ) Made by Six Different Shopkeepers over the Months
           
Months
Shopkeeper
October
2009
November
2009
December 2009
January 2010
February
2010
March  2010
P
5.25
6.04
5.84
6.10
5.95
6.02
Q
4.84
4.28
4.97
4.88
5.04
5.12
R
4.99
5.82
5.48
5.45
5.68
5.36
S
5.06
5.11
5.28
5.38
5.44
5.59
T
5.28
4.96
5.31
5.69
4.93
5.72
U
5.94
6.23
5.87
6.07
6.19
6.23
26.        What is the respective ratio between the profit earned by shopkeeper U in the months February - 2010 and March - 2010 together to that earned by Shop keeper Q in the same months?
            a) 637 : 512       b) 621 : 508       c) 512 : 637       d) 508 : 621       e) None of these
27.        What is the percent increase in profit of shopkeeper S in the month of December - 2009 over the previous month? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
            a) 3.15              b) 2.67              c) 2.18              d) 3.33              e) None of these
28.        Which shopkeeper’s profit kept increasing continuously over the given months?
            a) R                  b) Q                  c) T                   d) U                  e) None of these
29.        What is the different in profit earned by shopkeeper T in January 2010 from the previous month?
            a) Rs.640          b) Rs.420          c) Rs.380          d) Rs.760          e) None of these
30.        What was the average profit earned by shopkeeper R in the months of October - 2009 and November - 2009 together?
            a) 5405             b) 5040             c) 4825             d) 4950             e) None of these
            Directions (31 - 35): Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of Days Taken By Three Carpenters To Finish Making One Piece Each of Four Different Items Of Furniture.

PL see Annexure

31.        If carpenter X and carpenter Y were to make a chair together how many days would they take?
            a) 1 day            b) 4 days           c) 3 days           d) 2 days           e) None of these
32.        If carpenters X, Y and Z were to make a table together how many days would they take?
            a) 4 days           b) 3 days           c) 1 day            d) 2 days           e) None of these
33.        What is the total number of days that carpenter Z will take to make one piece each of all the four items together?
            a) 32 days         b) 24 days         c) 1 1 days        d) 1 1 days        e) None of these
                                                                  59                     32
34.        The radius of a circular field is equal to the side of a square field whose perimeter is 784 feet. What is the area of the circular field?
            a) 107914 sq.ft. b) 120736 sq.ft. c) 107362 sq.ft.
            d) 127306 sq.ft. e) None of these
35.        In how many different ways can the letters of the world STRESS be arranged?
            a) 360               b) 240               c) 720               d) 120               e) None of these
            Directions (36 - 40): Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of People Staying in Five Different Localities and the Percentage Breakup of Men, Women and Children in them

Locality
Total No. of People
Percentage
Men
Women
Children
F
5640
55
35
10
G
4850
34
44
22
H
5200
48
39
13
J
6020
65
25
10
O
4900
42
41
17

36.        Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what percent of the total number of people staying in locality F?
            a) 81                 b) 72                 c) 78                 d) 93                 e) 87
37.        What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together?
            a) 1287             b) 1278             c) 1827             d) 1728             e) None of these
38.        The number of women staying in which locality is the highlight?
            a) H                  b) J                   c) F                  d) G                  e) None of these
39.        What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together?
            a) 4115             b) 4551             c) 4515             d) 4155             e) None of these
40.        What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men staying in locality H?
            a) 517:416         b) 403:522         c) 416:517         d) 522:403         e) None of these
41.        The compound interest earned by Suresh on a certain amount at the end of two years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a was Rs.1,414.4. What was the total amount that Suresh got back at the end of two years in the form of principal plus interest earned?
            a) Rs.9,414.4     b) Rs.9,914.4                 c) Rs.9,014.4     d) Rs.8,914.4
            e) None of these
42.        The respective ratio of the percent of the present ages of a mother and daughter is 7:1. Four years ago the respective ratio of their ages was 19:1. What will be the mother’s age four years from now?
            a) 42 years        b) 38 years        c) 46 years        d) 36 years        e) None of these
43.        Three friends J, K and L jog around a circular stadium and complete one round in 12, 18 and 20 seconds respectively. In how many minutes will all the three meet again at the starting point?
            a) 5                   b) 8                   c) 12                 d) 3                   e) None of these
44.        4 men can complete a piece of work in 2 days. 4 women can complete the same piece of work in 4 days whereas 5 children can complete the same piece of work in 4 days. If, 2 men, 4 women and 10 children work together, in how many days can the work be completed ?.
a) 1 day    b) 3 days       c) 2 days           d) 4 days           e) None of these
45.        The speed of a boat when trav­elling downstream is 32 kmph whereas when travelling up­stream it is 28 kmph. What is the speed of the boat in still wa­ter?
           a) 27 Kmph         b) 29 Kmph       c) 31 Kmph       d) Cannot be determined
           e) None of these
46.        Directions (46-50) : Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below :
Number at Percentage of Candidates Qualified in a Competitive
Examination :

Number of Candidates appeared in a Competitive Examination
From Five Centres Over The Years

Centre Year     

Mumbai
Delhi
Kolkata
Hyderabad
Chennai
2001
35145
65139
45192
51124
37346
2002
17264
58248
52314
50248
48932
2003
24000
63309
56469
52368
51406
2004
28316
70316
71253
54196
523.15
2005
36503
60294
69632
58360
55492
2006
29129
50216
64178
48230
57365
2007
32438
61345
56304
49178
58492

Approximate Percentages of Candidates Qualified To Appeared in the Competitive Examination From Five Centres Over the year

Centre Year     

Mumbai
Delhi
Kolkata
Hyderabad
Chennai
2001
12
24
18
17
9
2002
10
28
12
21
12
2003
15
21
23
25
10
2004
11
27
19
24
8
2005
13
23
16
23
13
2006
14
20
21
19
11
2007
16
19
24
20
14

46.        In which of the following years was the difference in number in number of candidates appeared from Mumbai over the previous year the minimum?
            a) 2004             b) 2006             c) 2007             d) 2002             e) None of these
47.        In which of the following years was the number of canditates Qualified from Chennai. the max­imum among the given years'?
            a) 2007             b) 2006             c) 2005             d) 2003             e) None of these
48.     Approximately what was the total number of canditates qual­ified from Delhi in 2002 and 2006 together?
            a) 27250            b) 25230            c) 30150            d) 28150            e) 26250
49.        Approximately how many can­didates appearing from Kolkata in 2004 qualified in the compet­itive examination?
            a) 13230            b) 13540            c) 15130            d) 15400            e) 19240
50.        Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates qualified from Hyderabad in 2001 and 2002?
            a) 1680             b) 2440             c) 1450             d) 2060             e) 1860

REASONING

Directions (51 - 55): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and    are used with the follow­ing meaning as illustrated below:
'P Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q',
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q',
'P   Q means 'P is neither small­er than nor equal to Q'.
'P @ Q means 'P is neither great­er than nor smaller than Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither great­er than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given state­ments to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II and Ill given below them is/are definitely true?
51.        Statements:
F%T, T @J, J   W
Conclusions :
A) J @ F           B)J   P                   C) W S T
a) Only A is true                        b) Only B is true                        c) Only C is true                       
d) Only either A or B is true                                e) Only either A or B and C are true
52.        Statements:
            R     D, D © K, K $ M
            Conclusions:
            A) M      R         B) K $ R            C) D    M
            a) None is true               b) Only A is true            c) Only B is true
            d) Only C is true            e) Only B and C are true
53.        Statements:
            Z © F, F $ M, M % K
            Conclusions:
            A) K     F           B) Z     M          C) K     Z
            a) Only A is true                        b) Only B is true                        c) Only C is true
            d) Only B and C are true             e) None of these
54.        Statements:
            H @ B,  B  © C,  A $ R
            Conclusions:
            A) B     A          B) R % H          C) A $ H
            a) Only A and B are true                         b) Only A and C are true             c) Only B and C are true
            d) All A, B and C are true                        e) None of these
55.        Statements:
            M $ J, J   T, K © T
            Conclusions:
            A) K    J            B) M $ T            C) M $ K
            a) None is true               b) Only A is true                        c) Only B is true
            d) Only C is true                        e) Only B and C are true
            Directions (56 - 60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
            B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the immediate right of B who is fourth to the right of K.P is second to the left of B and is fourth to the right of W. Q is second to the right of D who is second to the right of H.
56.        Who is third to the right of B?
            a) W                 b) M                  c) K                  d) H                  e) None of these
57.        Which of the following represents the immediate neighbours of D?
            a) PQ                b) KH                c) PH                d) KQ                e) PK
58.        Who is third to the right of W?
            a) P                  b) D                  c) K                  d) R                  e) Data inadequate
59.        Who is second to the left of D?
            a) D                  b) H                  c) K      d) Data inadequate         e) None of these
60.        Who is to the immediate left of B?
            a) Q                  b) P                  c) W     d) Data inadequate         e) None of these
61.        If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is forth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left?
            a) M                  b) N                  c) Q                  d) P                  e) None of these
62.        If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series?
            a) L                   b) O                  c) M                  d) N                  e) None of these
63.        If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter - groups?
MEET, DEAFT, ROAD, CODE, LACK
a) LACK            b) MEET           c) ROAD           d) DEAF            e) None of these
64.        The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space which of the following series observes this rule?
            a) HKNGSW                  b) EIMQVZ                    c) SUXADF        d) RVZDHL
            e) None of these
65.        Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adja­cent letters clti not decrease in order
            a) MGVFK         b) PJXNM          c) EQZFI           d) GWIQU         e) None of these
66.        A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing?
            a) North             b) East              c) South            d) West             e) None of these
67.        A boy started walking position­ing his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then to­wards the left again. In which direction is he going now?
a) East or West             b) North or West                        c) South or West
d) North or South           e) None of these
68.        If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomor­row?
            a) 1           b) 2              c) 3                   d) 4                   e) None of these
69.        In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row?
            a) 32                 b) 31                 c) 33                 d) 30                 e) None of these
70.     136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scoot­er. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row.
            a) 61                 b) 62                 c) 63                 d) 64                 e) None of these

Directions (71 - 76) : In each question below are four statements fol­lowed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then de­cide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is cor­rect.
71.        Statements:
All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusions:
A) Some mats are rollers.           B) Some mats are belts.
C) Some cars are rollers.            D) Some rollers are belts.
            a) Only A and B follow                b) Only A, C and D follow           
            c) Only A and D follow                d) Only B, C and D follow            e) None of these
72.        Statements:
Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.
Conclusions
            A) Some jungles are tyres.         B) Some tubes are rains.           
            C) Some jungles are rains.          D) Some tubes are flowers.
            a) Only A, B and C follow            b) Only B, C and IV follow          
            c) Only A, C and D follow            d) All follow                    e) None of these
73.        Statements :
All desks are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions:
     A) Some trunks are tables.         B) All chairs are boxes.
     C) Some boxes are desks.         D) All desks are trunks.
     a) Only A, B and C follow            b) Only A, B and D follow           
     c) Only B, C and D follow            d) All follow                    d) None of these
74.        Statements:
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
     A) Some tigers are goats.           B) No tiger is goat.         C) Some lions are birds.
     D) No lion is bird.                      
     a) Only either A or B follows        b) Only either C or D follows
     c) Only either A or B and either C or D follow        d) Only A and B follow
     e) None of these
75.      Statements :
All papers are bottles.
All bottles are cups.
Some cups are jugs.
Some jugs are plates.
Conclusions :
A) Some plates are cups.           B) Some plates are bottles.
C) Some cups are papers.          D) Some bottles are papers.
a) Only C and D follow                b) Only A and B follow    c) Only A and C follow
d) Only B and D follow                e) None of these
76.      Statements:
All bulbs are wires.
No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
All brushes are paints
Conclusions :
            A) Some paints are cables.         B) Sonic wires are bulbs.           
            C) Sonic brushes are wires.        D) Some cables are bulbs.
a) None follows              b) Only A and B follow                c) Only II follows
d) Only C follows            e) Only D follows
Directions (77- 82) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and num­bers rearranges them following a par­ticular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rear­rangement.
Input:
but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I : south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II: south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III: south 84 glory bet 72 71 fair 05
Step IV: south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI: south 84 glory 71 fair 65 32
         and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
77.        Step Ill of an input is
year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
How many more steps will be required to complete the rear­rangement?
      a) Three            b) Four              c) Two               d) Five               e) None of these
78.        Input : any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
      a) VI                 b) VII                 c) V      d) VIII                e) None of these
79.        Step Il of an input is:
town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42 Winch of the following is definite-ly the input ?
     a) pair 15 31 town nice job 47, 74            b) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
     c) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42 d) Cannot be determined
     e) None of these
80.     Input : play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Which of the following will be step IV?
a) play 81 over 49 37 match now             b) play 8 over 49 37 12 match, now
c) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12         d) There will be no such step
e) None of these
81.      Step If of an input is
war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24 Which of the following steps will be the last ?
            a) V      b) VI     c) IV     d) VII     e) None of these
82.        Input : shower fan water 34 51 61 98 goai
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
      a) Three            b) Four              c) Six                d) Five               e) None of these
Directions (83- 85) : In each question below is given a group of let­ters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4).. You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents tile group of letters based on the fol­lowing coding system and the condi­tions that follow and mark the num­ber of that combination as your an­swer. If none of the combinations cor­rectly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. 'None of these' as your answer.
Letter
Digit/
R
D
A
E
J
M
K
T
B
U
I
P
W
H
F
Symbol
Code
4
8
5
$
1
2
6
%
©
7
A
3
9
#
            Conditions:


            A) If the first letter is a conso­nant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as
B) if both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the 'Code for the last letter.
C) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.
83.        HIFMJU
a) © '7 # 1     9 b) 97# 1   9        c) © 7 # 1   ©                d) S7#1   6
e) None of these
84.        AKTRBW
a) 3264%5         b) 3264%3         c) 324%65         d) 5264%3         e) None of these
85.  EBPDRI
a) 7%@847       b) 7%@84$       c) $%@847       d) $%8@47       e) None of these
Directions (86-90) : Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context. of the passage and decide upon its de­gree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is--definitely true" i.e. it properly fol­lows from the statement of facts giv­en.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is "probably true though nor "definitely true" in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the "data are inadequate" i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is "probably false" though not "definite­ly false" in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is "definitely false" i.e. it cannot possi­bly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shows groundwater levels in northern India depleting by as much as a foot per year, over the past decade, is a matter of' concern. The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbu­lent water future and veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustain­able practices. Besides the poor monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India calls for sustained policy focus on the water economy. A whole series of glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, there's far too much reliance on groundwater. For another our water infrastructure for storage and sup­ply is sorely inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs like power have per­versely incentivised cultivation of wa­ter intensive crops like paddy in-traditionally wheat growing areas.
86.        India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater ade­quately in northern part.
87.        Wheat cultivation in India re­quires comparatively more water than paddy.
88.        Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
89.        India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
90.        Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus preserve balance.
Directions (91-95) : In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "strong" arguments and "weak" arguments. "Strong" arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. "Weak" argu­ments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the triv­ial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are "strong".
91.        Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each house­hold depending upon the require­ment?
Arguments:
A)Yes, this will help government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of electricity.
           B) No, every citizen has right to con­sume electricity as per their re­quirement as they pay for using electricity.
           C) No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
     a) Only A is strong         b) Only B is strong         c) Only I and II are strong
     d) Only B and C are strong         e) All A, B and C are strong
92.        Should the Government order clo­sure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spread­ing of the contagious viral infec­tion?
Arguments :
A) No, closure of educational insti­tution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.
B) No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, play­grounds etc. in more numbers and spread the disease, as they will have lot of spare time at their disposal.
C) Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain indoors.
a) None is strong .         b) Only A is strong         c) Only C is strong
d) Only A and B are strong                                 e) All A, B and C are strong
93.        Should the Government ban ex­port of all types of food grains for the next one year to tide over the unprotected drought situation in the country ?
Arguments:
A) Yes, there is no other way to pro­vide food to its citizen during the year.
B) No, the Government does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exporters.
C) Yes, the Government should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the food grains held by such exporters and make it available for home consumption.
a) Only A and B are strong         b) Only B and C are strong
c) Only B and C are strong         d) Only A and C are strong
e) All A, B and C are strong        e) None of these
94.        Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country?
            Arguments:
            A) Yes, this is the only way to spring in uniformity in the education system in the country.
            B) Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation certificates being given by different universities in the country.
            C) No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
            a) None is strong           b) Only A is strong         c) Only B is strong
d) Only A and B are strong                                 e) Only B and C are strong
95.        Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination?
            Arguments:
            A) Yes, this will help the students to complete their education with out a break of one year.
            B) Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
            C) No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
            a) Only A is strong         b) Only B is strong         c) Only C is strong
            d) Only either B or C and A are strong                 e) None of these
96.        A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class, D did not enter along with A or E but entered before C, B did not enter before C but entered along with A.E was not the last to enter.
            Which of the following is definitely true?
            a) C entered the class only after D           b) D entered the class only after E
            c) B entered the class after A                  d) A entered the class after D
            e) None of these
97.        D is brother of K. M is sister of K.T is father of R who is brother of M.F is mother of K. At least how many sons does T and F have?
            a) Two               b) Three            c) Four              d) Data inadequate        
            e) None of these
98.        Statements: In a move that could provide some respite to ailing airline companies, the government is looking at allowing them to import jet fuel on their own.
            Which of the following can be definitely concluded from the above statement?
            a) Airline companies in the past have imported jet fuel
            b) The price of imported jet fuel is less than the price of jet fuel available in the local market.
            c) Central Government will lose huge amount of money if jet fuel is imported.
            d) Airline companies are making considerable profit in the recent months
            e) None of these
99.        Statement: Some of the country’s largest food beverage and pharma companies may be forced to import sugar directly as the government plans to improve stock limits on industrial consumers to ease the shortage in-grocery shops and cool down prices that are at a 28 month high. Which of the following substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?
            a) Food, beverage and pharma companies were not allowed in the past to import sugar.
            b) Sugar prices have been fluctuating for the past seven months.
            c) Government does not have authority to restrict purchase of sugar from the open market.
            d) Import of sugar for commercial use will help lowering down the sugar price in the retail market.
            e) None of these
100.      Statement: A recent review reported that India’s fashion industry has been severely affected due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods; besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well international markets.
            Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement/
            a) India’s fashion industry has been growing till last year.
            b) Government has helped India’s fashion industry to grow in the past.
            c) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market.
            d) Share of fashion goods manufactured by India is negligible in the international market.
            e) None of these
                                                *******************

TEST III – MARKETING, COMPUTER AWARENESS AND GENERAL AWARENESS

1.     What is the full form of the term ‘NPA’as used in banking environment?
(A)   Not Profitable Asset
(B)   New Potential Accounts
(C)   Non Performing Assets
(D)   Net Performing Assets
(E)   None of these
2.     As per recent reports, many countries are planning to introduce “Tobin Tax”, the idea of which was given by a Nobel prize winner economist James Tobin in 1978.  Tobin Tax, if implemented, will be levied on which of the following?
(A)   On the interest income of corporate earned through major investments
(B)   All cash transactions
(C)   Services availed specifically by an elite group of people
(D)   Foreign exchange transactions
(E)   None of these
3.     As per news reports, the Indian Economy is poised to hit high growth once again.  It is estimated that the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) may be somewhere in the range of 6.25% 7.75% in the current fiscal.  But at the same time the economy has to face certain challenges also.  What could these challenges be?
I.              Maintaining balance between price stability and exchange rate
II.             Capital flow may not be adequate as many FIIs are still not comfortable with Indian markets.
III.            Industrial sector is still under pressure and not showing much improvement.

(A)   Only I          (B) only II          (C) only III                      (D) All I,II &III                 (E) none of these
4.     Which of the following countries has decided that from October 2018 no cheques should be issued or honored there, and all the payments should be made and accepted in electronic form only?
(A)   USA           (B) Russia         (C) united Kingdom        (D) Australia                  (E) none of these
5.     In commodity exchange in India, ‘ Index Futures are not permitted, as some of the provisions of the FCRA do not allow the same.  What is the full form of FCRA?
(A)   Foreign commodities Regulation Act
(B)   Forward Commodities Repurchasing Act
(C)   Forward Contracts Regulation Act
(D)   Financial Contracts Reformation Act
(E)   None of these
6.     As per the findings of the expert group headed by Dr. Suresh Tendulkar, a substantial number of people in India still live Below Poverty Line.  What is that number in terms of percentage?
(A)   25%            (B) 37%            (C) 41%                        (D) 47%                        (E) none of these
7.     As per the findings of the World Bank, which of the following recent developments in rural areas has doubled the income of rural households, raised literacy rate by 10% and appreciated land prices by up to 802%?
(A)   Relief packages to the farmers
(B)   Construction of all weather roads
(C)   Recharging of water bodies
(D)   Rainwater harvesting
(E)   None of these
8.     As decided by the Reserve Bank of India, all the villages with a population of 2000 will have access to financial services by the end of
(A)   2009-10       (B) 2010-11       (C) 2011-12                   (D) 2012-13                   (E) none of these
9.     As reported in various newspapers, the Reserve Bank of India is planning to allow more and more banks to function as “Local Area Banks”.  This will help RBI in the implementation of which of the following of its plans/drives?
I.              Financial Inclusion
II.             Rural Banking
III.            Mobile and e- Banking

(A)   Only I                       (B) only II         (C) only III                      (D) only I & II             (E) none of these
10.  During his visit to Trinidad in November 2009, the Indian Prime Minister signed a Nuclear deal between India and:
(A)   Canada                   (B) Brazil           (C) Saudi Arabia            (D) Tanzania              (E) none of these
11.  Which of the following is/are the objective of the new industrial policy of the Government of India?
I.              To transform India into a major partner and player in the global trade
II.             To maintain a sustained growth in productivity.
III.            To become the biggest exporter of Horticultural products in South East Asia.

(A)   Only I                      (B)  only II         (C) only I & II                 (D) only II & III           (E) All I,II & III
12.  The Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) of the APEC held an important summit in Singapore in November 2009.  What is the full form of APEC?
(A)   Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation
(B)   Afro-Pacific Economic  Council
(C)   Asia Pacific Economic Council
(D)   Alliance for Promotion of Economic Co-operation
(E)   None of these
13.  Which of the following Gulf countries has decided recently that despite the objections raised by certain countries, it will construct 10 more Uranium enrichment plants to strengthen its position in the world?
(A)   Iraq                         (B) Iran              (C) UAE                        (D) Kuwait                 (E) none of these
14.  Which of the following countries was the winner of the Asia Cup Hokey Tournament for women held in November 2009?
(A)   India                       (B) Japan          (C) China                       (D) South Korea        (E) none of these
15.  The leaders of the European Union (EU) named Herman Van Rompuy as the first President of the EU Rompuy is the present:
(A)   Prime Minister of Britain
(B)   President of Ukraine
(C)   Prime minister of Russia
(D)   President of Italy
(E)   Prime Minister of Belgium
16.  Which of the following is not one of the Monitorable Targets of the 11th Five Year Plan (2007-12)?
(A)   To increase the average GDP growth rate
(B)   To increase the literacy rate
(C)   To increase energy efficiency
(D)   To improve sex ratio
(E)   To minimize the effect of global warming
17.  Cryogenic Engines are used in which of the following areas of technology?
(A)   Atomic Energy
(B)   Food Technology
(C)   Oceanography
(D)   Space Research
(E)   None of these
18.  The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is now known by which of the following names?
(A)   Indira Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B)   Rajiv Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(C)   Jawaharlal Nehru Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D)   Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E)   None of these
19.  Which of the following initiatives is/are taken by the Government of India to boost the development of agriculture?
I.              Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme
II.             Fertiliser Subsidy Scheme
III.            Public Distribution System(PDS)

(A)   Only I                      (B) only II          (C) only III          (D) only I & II                 (E) All I, II &III
20.  Which of the following is/are true about the Indo-US Economic and Financial partnership deal made in November 2009?
I.              The objective of the deal is to strengthen bilateral engagements and understanding
II.             Work jointly on some financial and infrastructure related  projects.
III.            The deal was signed during the visit of the Foreign Minister of both the countries to South Africa for Global Economic summit 2009.

(A)   Only I                      (B) only II          (C) only I & II     (D) only I & III                 (E) none of these
21.  Which of the following countries has signed a deal to supply a fleet of 150J-10 Fighter Jets to Pakistan?
(A)   France                   (B) Canada        (C) Russia         (D) USA                        (E) China
22.  Which of the following terms/names is not associated with banking/financial trade in India?
(A)   Automated Clearing House
(B)   Provision Coverage Ratio
(C)   Market Stabilization Scheme
(D)   Credit Default Swaps
(E)   Double Fault
23.  The standard protocol of the Internet is __________
(A)   TCP/IP                    (B)Java              (C) HTML         (D) Flash                      (E) none of these
24.  Digital photos and scanned images are typically stored as _______ graphics with extensions such as bmp, png, jpg, of or gif.
(A)   Vector
(B)   Bitmap
(C)   Either vector or bitmap
(D)   Neither vector nor bitmap
(E)   None of these
25.  A __________ is a computer attached to the internet that runs a special Web server software and can send Web pages out to other computers over the internet:
(A)   Web client
(B)   Web system
(C)   Web page
(D)   Web server
(E)   None of these
26.  After a user has saved and deleted many files, many scattered areas of stored data remain that are too small to be used efficiently, causing:
(A)   Disorder
(B)   Turmoil
(C)   Disarray
(D)   Fragmentation
(E)   None of these
27.  Which of the following books has been written by VS Naipaul?
(A)   The Last Hero
(B)   Bliss Was in That Dawn
(C)   Train to Pakistan
(D)   A Tale of Two Cities
(E)   A House for Mr. Biswas
28.  Which of the following is the communications protocol that sets the standard used by every computer that accesses web-based information?
(A)   XML                        (B) DML            (C) HTTP           (D) HTML          (E) None of these
29.  Which of the following converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file?
(A)   Compiler
(B)   Interpreter
(C)   Converter
(D)   Instruction
(E)   None of these
30.  A program that generally has more user-friendly interface that a DBMS is called a :
(A)   Front end
(B)   Repository
(C)   Back end
(D)   Form
(E)   None of these
31.  When you install a new program on your computer, it is typically added to the _______menu.
(A)   All programs
(B)   Select programs
(C)   Start programs
(D)   Desktop programs
(E)   None of these
32.  Which of the following contains information about a single “entity” in the database like a person, place, event, or thing?
(A)   Query                     (B) form (C) record          (D) table            (E) none of these
33.  Which of the following is a key function of a firewall?
(A)   Monitoring
(B)   Deleting
(C)   Copying
(D)   Moving
(E)   None of these
34.  ________ are a type of inexpensive digital camera that remains tethered to a computer and are used for videoconferencing, video chatting and live Web broadcast.
(A)   Webcams
(B)   Webpics
(C)   Browsercams
(D)   Browserpics
(E)   None of these
35.  Who amongst the following is the author of the book The Rediscovery of India?
(A)   Meghnad Desai
(B)   Romila Thapar
(C)   Mulk Raj Anand
(D)   Amit Chaudhary
(E)   None of these
36.  Some banks which were not able to meet their priority sector lending targets are now allowed to do so by purchasing Priority Sector Lending Certificates(PSLC).  Which of the following agencies/ organizations is/are authorized to issue these certificates?
I.              Micro finance Institutions
II.             Non Banking Finance Companies
III.            NABARD
(A)   Only I          (B) only II          (C) only I & II     (D)All I, II &III     (E) none of these
37.  Market Research is useful for
(A)   Deciding proper marketing strategies
(B)   Deciding the selling price
(C)   Choosing the right products
(D)   Choosing the sales persons
(E)   All of these
38.  A call means
(A)   Shout out to somebody
(B)   Profession or business
(C)   Visiting friends
(D)   Visiting prospective customers
(E)   After-sales service
39.  Conversion means
(A)   Meeting a prospective client
(B)   Interacting with a prospective client
(C)   Converting an employer into an employee
(D)   Converting a seller into a buyer
(E)   Converting a prospective client into a buyer
40.  Customization means:
(A)   Acquiring more customers
(B)   Regulating customers
(C)   Special products to suit each customer
(D)   More products per customer
(E)   All of these
41.  Modem styles of marketing include:
(A)   Digital marketing
(B)   Tele marketing
(C)   E-commerce
(D)   E-mails solicitation
(E)   All of these
42.  The acronym HTML stands for:
(A)   High Transfer Machine Language
(B)   High Transmission Markup Language
(C)   Hypertext Markup Language
(D)   Hypermedia Markup Language
(E)   None of these
43.  E-marketing is the same as:
(A)   Virtual marketing
(B)   Digital marketing
(C)   Real time marketing
(D)   All of these
(E)   None of these
44.  Value – added services means:
(A)   Costlier products
(B)   Larger number of products
(C)   Additional services
(D)   At par service
(E)   None of these
45.  Aggressive marketing is necessitated due to :
(A)   Globalization
(B)   Increased competition
(C)   Increased production
(D)   Increased job opportunities
(E)   All of these
46.  Computers connected to a LAN can:
(A)   Run faster
(B)   Share information and /or share peripheral equipment
(C)   E-mail
(D)   Go online
(E)   None of these
47.  Efficient marketing style requires:
(A)   Proper planning
(B)   Good communication skills
(C)   Teamwork
(D)   Knowledge of products
(E)   All of these
48.  The performance of a salesperson depends on:
(A)   Salary paid
(B)   Sales incentives paid
(C)   Size of the sales team
(D)   Ability and willingness of the salesperson
(E)   Team leader’s aggressiveness
49.  The sole aim of marketing is to:
(A)   Increase sales
(B)   Increase the number of employees
(C)   Increase profits
(D)   Increase production
(E)   All of these
50.  Lead generation means:
(A)   Tips for selling tactics
(B)   Tips for better production
(C)   Generating leaders
(D)   Likely sources for prospective clients
(E)   All of these
           

TEST IV - ENGLISH

Directions: (Q: 51 - 58): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:
With elections on in many parts of India, much is being said about the importance of democracy and how it brings growth and prosperity. particularly, there is strong criticism of incumbent governments in UP and Punjab by the opposition on the ground that they have been only ‘partly democratic’ during their regime, resulting in slow economic growth in these states. However, it remains, to be explored if democracy is correlated with economic growth and general prosperity.
In a study published in The American, it was demonstrated that a country does not require democratic government for economic success. The study borrowed from the work of Kenneth Arrow, 1972 Nobel laureate, who said that a government is an institution that makes decisions for citizens who may have different preferences. In other words, the function of the government is to decide where to allocate state resources for betterment of its citizens, and this function can be performed effectively by a democratically elected government or even a dictator.
The aforementioned study used Freedom House’s measure, to rate the level of political freedom of the world’s nations, using a reliable and valid psychometric scale. The study compared the economic growth of countries that were both politically and economically free (fully-free nations) to countries that were economically free but were politically repressed (politically-repressed nations). The results of the study were surprising.
Between 1991 and 2005, the countries that were economically free but politically repressed grew at 6.28% annually. Comparatively, the countries that were both economically and politically free grew at 2.62%. In other words, dictatorial regimes make better economic decisions for citizens that democratic ones.
The view promulgated in this study only examined the overall economic growth of countries, not the welfare of citizens. Consequently, it would be interesting to examine how politically repressed nations fared on the welfare of the citizens.
One of the best available indicators of welfare and prosperity of citizens of a country is the Human Development Index (HDI). This writer compared the average HDI of “totally-free” nations with the HDI of nations that are ‘partly free’ and ‘totally unfree’ using the Freedom House measure. The result of the analysis was contrary to the American study. The average HDI of ‘politically-repressed nations’ is much lower compared to ‘free-nations’. In other words, on average politically-repressed nations have low human development. Further examinations also showed that the average HDI for ‘partly-free nations’ was even lower than the ‘unfree’ countries.
If these results were to be viewed in conjunction with the results of the study published in The American, one can infer that democratic governments of the world may not bring rapid economic success but at least bring greater human development. However, it would be better to be ‘totally repressed’ than ‘partly free’. In other words, on average, a comparison between ‘partly free’ and ‘totally unfree’ countries would tell us that it is better to be “totally unfree than partly free’ both from an economics and human development perspective. The results somewhat concur with ‘conflict theorists’ who argue that a partial democracy, characterized by low level of political rights and civil liberties for the general public, thwarts economic growth, particularly in less developed countries. Furthermore, conflict theorists contend that partial democracy enables small societal groups to make bigger demands on the state for particularistic gains that are detrimental to overall growth and prosperity.
51.        Which of the following is the view about the governments, as published in The American?
            (A) There is no need of a democratic government in a country for its economic success.
            (B) It is the function of the govt to allocate state resources for the welfare of its citizens.
            (C) The allocation of state resources can be done in the most effective way only by a democratically elected government.
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)        c) Only (C)        d) Only (A) and (B)
            e) Only (B) and (C)
52.        Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
            (A) The growth rate of politically repressed but economically free countries was much better than that of politically as well economically free ones.
            (B) As per a study published in The American, a dictatorial regime makes better economic decisions for its citizens than democratic ones.
            (C) The study examines both economic growth of a country and welfare of its citizens.
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (A) and (B)
            d) Only (A) and (C)         e) Only (B) and (C)
53.        Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
            (A) Human Development Index is an indicator of welfare and prosperity of citizens of a country.
            (B) According to Freedom House measure, the politically repressed nations, on average, have better human development
            (C) The average HDI of politically repressed nations, according to Freedom House measure, is much lower compared to free nations.
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (C)
            d) Only (A) and (B)         e) Only (A) and (C)
54.        Which of the following can be inferred about HDI?
            a) It indicates welfare of the citizens of a country
            b) It indicates the prosperity of the citizens of a country.
            c) The HDI showed different results when the result of The American study was compared with the result obtained by using the Freedom House measure.
            d) Politically free nations showed better human development
            e) All the above are correct
55.        Which of the following is not correct in the context of the passage?
            a) The study published in The American is based on the work of Kenneth Arrow, who was awarded Nobel Prize in 172.
            b) The above mentioned study used Freedom House’s measure to rate the level of politician freedom of the nations.
            c) The study compared the economic growth of the countries that were, fully or partly, economically or politically free.
            d) Politically repressed but economically free nations showed better growth.
            e) All the above are correct
56.        Which of the following is definitely true as mentioned in the passage?
            a) It is better to be totally free than totally unfree.
            b) It is better to be totally unfree than partially free.
            c) It is better to be totally unfree than totally free
            d) It is better to be totally free if not partially free
            e) None of these
57.        What charges have been leveled by the opposition against the incumbent government in Uttar Pradesh and Punjab?
            (A) Their government has been only partly democratic during their regime.
            (B) The economic growth has remained slow during this regime.
            (C) The govt has acquired name and fame despite slow economic growth.
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only B                      c) Both (A) and (B)
            d) All the above              e) None of these
58.        What, according to ‘conflict theorists’, is/are the characteristics of a nation which has partial democracy?
            (A) The general public enjoy little civil liberties and political rights.
            (B) Because of the absence of politically interference, there is rapid economic growth in those nations.
            (C) The small societal groups post bigger demands on the state and this is detrimental to the prosperity and growth of the state
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (A) and (B)
            d) Only (A) and (C)                     e) All the above
Directions (Q. 59-65): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it
If you enjoy reading Dickens or Jane Austen for pleasure, don’t even bother picking up Revolution 2020. Chetan Bhagat is not for you. He is for all those who stopping reading English the moment they stepped out of school. You will learn nothing from this book. For it is not meant to teach you anything. Neither English nor Literature. And certainly not anything about life as it ought to be lived.
Then why do millions of young people read Bhagat, follow him on Twitter? Why does Time Magazine rate him among the 100 most influential people in the world? Why does Fast Company, one of my favourite magazines, list him among the 100 most creative people in business? The answer is actually very simple. Bhagat has successfully deconstructed the idea of literature, and demystified it as well. In the great tradition of Indian pulp fiction, yes, Gulshan Nanda would have loved him.
Some years ago, I wrote about a charming anthology of Tamil pulp fiction translated into English and published by, one of India’s most innovative publishing houses out of Chennai. The book did so well that they brought out a second volume which they asked me to inaugurate at the next Kala Ghoda festival. That too was a huge success. Not because it was great literature but because it pushed back the boundaries of fiction as we know it and brought many more readers into the fold.
This is exactly what Chetan Bhagat is doing. You could well conclude that he is desecrating literature as we know it. Or you could simply sit back and have fun reading what he writes with such amazing conviction and commercial success. You can also marvel at the kind of readership he is bringing to Indian fiction in English. No, these are no longer of literature like you and I. these are real people looking for a quick, fun read that does not test your intelligence but artfully tells you a story that you can easily identify with.
59         Why does the author of the passage forbid you from picking the book written by Chetan Bhagat?
            (A) Because he is not such a writer as can entertain you as much as Dickens or Jane Austen can do, if you have a real liking for English literature.
            (B) because he is engaged is desecrating literature
            (C) Because he cannot give anything through his writings that can add value to your life.
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (C)
            d) All the above              e) None of these
60.        What can be said about the writer of the passage?
            (A) The writer of the passage wants to avenge on Chetan Bhagat
            (B) The writer of the passage is very conservative and mean-minded and the views expressed by him show his narrow mindedness
            (C) The writer is presenting a true picture of Bhagat’s writings and is worth appreciation
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (C)
            d) Only (A) and (B)         e) All the above
61.        Despite severe criticism, why is the popularity of Chetan Bhagat increasing day by day?
            (A) Because he has simplified the way of expression in his books
            (B) His books are liked mostly by young people
            (C) Bhagat has modified the idea of literature, demystified it
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (C)
            d) Only (A) and (B)         e) All the above
61.        What were the reasons for the huge success of the anthology of Tamil pulp fiction?
            a) It was a great book on English literature
            b) It was written in poetic form
            c) It escapes from the hard realities of life.
            d) It did not follow the hard-and fast rules of fiction writing 
            e) All the above
63.        Which of the following books by Chetan Bhagat is being referred to by the writer?
            a) Five Point Someone               b) Two States    c) One Night @ a Call Centre
            d) Fast Company                       e) Revolution 2020
64.        What can be said about the readers of Chetan Bhagat?
            (A) They like fun reading rather than serious one
            (B) They are not mature people; most of them are vagabonds and truants
            (C) They are real people who learn a lot even from fun-making material
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (C)
            d) Only (A) and (B)         e) Only (A) and (C)
65.        Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
            (A) Chetan Bhagat is a romantic novelist
            (B) The writings of Chetan Bhagat teach lessons for betterment in one’s life.
            (C) The novels by Chetan Bhagat depict the story of the hard realities of life.
            a) Only (A)                    b) Only (B)                    c) Only (C)
            d) All (A), (B) and (C)      e) None of these
Directions (66-75): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or ideomatice error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
66.        When I reached the office, 1) / I became astonished to find 2) / that more than one workers were 3) / absent from duty. 4) / No error 5)
67.        The manager may 1) / use his direction 2) / to interrupt and 3) / apply a policy 4) / No error 5)
68.        Objectives can be said 1) / to the desired future 2) / position that the management 3) / would like to reach . 4) / No error 5)
69         To be concise, most of the people 1) / in the world failed due to fear of 2) / failure and initial hesitation 3) / and thus quitted the battle half way. 4) / No error 5)
70         But although much 1) / is done, there 2) / is still a very 3) / great deal to do 4) / No error 5)
71.        If you blow the trumpet 1) / on someone, you 2) / make him suddenly 3) / stop doing something illegal 4) / No error 5)
72.        Having received fatal wounds 1) / when Bhishma fell on the ground, 2) / every pore of his body 3) / was pierced by arrows 4) / No error 5)
73.        Surely, the personality of the individual 1) / through whom people derive some benefit 2) / receives adoration and his 3) / fame is scattered abroad 4) / No error 5)
74.        This article on corruption 1) / was published in 2) / the last issue of the 3) / Times of India 4) / No error 5)
75.        Everybody knows that 1) / Nirad C Choudhury 2) / had a good 3) / command on English 4) / No error 5)
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below:
(A)   At present, thirteen projects are under way.
(B)   The projects under the JNNURM are subcategorized as Basic Services for Urban Poor and Urban Infrastructure and Governance.
(C)   The urban infrastructure sub-mission focuses on water supply, sanitation, and solid waste management
(D)   Under the ADDA, one solid waster management has been approved by the central government
(E)   The basic services sub-mission-I focuses on housing
(F)   The purpose of the project is to provide more than 25,500 dwelling units for the rehabilitation of slums
76.        Which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’ after rearrangement?
            a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) D                  e) E
77.        Which of the following sentences will come ‘SECOND’ after rearrangement?
            a) A                  b) B                  c) C                  d) E                  e) F
78.        Which of the following sentences will ‘THIRD’ after rearrangement?
            a) B                  b) C                  c) E                  d) D                  e) A
79.        Which of the following sentences will come ‘FIFTH’ after rearrangement?
            a) C                  b) A                  c) B                  d) E                  e) F
80.        Which of the following sentences will come ‘LAST’ after rearrangement?
            a) A                  b) B                  c) D                  d) F                  e) E
Directions (Q: 81-82): In each question below, one or two sentences or parts of sentences are given with two blank spaces between them. From the three parts/sentences denoted by (A), (B) and (C) given below each, find out which two can fill up the blanks in proper sequence, ie the order in which these are given in the answer options to make the sentence / group of sentences meaningfully complete.
81.        In giving donation, (___________), (_______________). Hence, donor should be punished for giving donation.
            (A) the receiver is not the real culprit
            (B) it is the donor who is the real culprit
            (C) but the receiver is free from guilt
            a) Both (A) and (B)                     b) Both (A) and (C)         c) Both (B) and (C)
            d) Both (C) and (B)                     e) Either (A), (B) or (A) and (C)
82.        The organizing function (______________) (______________) and defining the inter-relationship between these roles.
            (A) includes the designing of roles to be filled by suitably skilled people
            (B) is not so important
            (C) leads to the creation of an organisation structure which
            a) Both (A) and (B)         b) Both (A) and (C)         c) Both (C) and (A)
            d) Both (B) and (C)         e) Either (B) and (C) or (A) and (B)
83.        Formal training plays (___________) (__________)
            (A) but equally important is the experience gained by handling assignments independently
            (B) an important part in equipping subordinates with skills that help them rise in the organisation
            (C) gives them a chance to prove their abilities
            a) Both (A) and (B)         b) Both (B) and (A)         c) Both (A) and (C)
            d) Both (B) and (C)         e) Either (A) and (B) or (A) and (C)
84.        Even a very important person has to bear the  brunt of public. The chairman of (____________) (_____________)
            (A) Wipro, one of the richest persons of the country, was criticized and insulted by a shareholder agent
            (B) any company deserves insult
            (C) and the CEO of Infosys Technologies was thrown out of a train somewhere in Europe
            a) Both (A) and (B)         b) Both (B) and (C)         c) Both (C) and (B)
            d) Both (A) and (C)         e) Either (A) and (C) or (C) and (A)
85.        After you achieve success (___________) (_____________)
            (A) you can discover another goal and mission
            (B) if you further want to continue your journey of success
            (C) but before making another move it is important to integrate all your sources to continue your journey of success
            a) Both (A) and (C)                     b) Either (A) and (C) or (C) and (A)
            c) Both (B) and (C)                     d) Both (C) and (B)
            e) Both (B) and (A)
Directions (Q.86-90): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.
86.        I. The game was already in _________ when we took our seats.
            II. The diaries are a mixture of confession, work in __________ and observations.
            a) apex             b) middle           c) progress        d) hand             e) favour
87.        I. I am about to ___________ knowledge to you that you will never be able to forget
            II. She managed to _________ great elegance to the unpretentious dress she was wearing.
            a) give               b) export           c) depart           d) impart           e) provide
88.        I. He will be attending next week’s Bihar Ratna Awards in __________ anticipation
            II. A __________ child refuses to eat and asks only for beverages
            a) strong           b) weak             c) feverish          d) extra             e) mere
89.        I. She made history come _________ with tales from her own memories
            II. He was certain that Amar would be eaten _________ by the hundred criminals in the jail.
            a) alive              b) true               c) along             d) only              e) dead
90.        I. They will first send in trained nurses to _________ the needs of the individual situation.
            II. The market situation is difficult to __________
            a) examine        b) access          c) see               d) study                        e) evaluate
Directions (Q. 91-100): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
The Supreme Court’s decision was based on the CBI report which (91) said “no (92) was (93) in the crime”. (94), the CBI’s (95) report, filed on December 29, 2010, had stated that “sufficient evidence is not available to prove the (96) U/s 302/201 IPC against accused Dr Rajesh Talwar beyond reasonable doubt”
All the evidence that the CBI has (97) against the parents is (98) at best be it the fact that there was no theft or force entry in the house, or that the scene of the crime was heavily dressed up or that Rajesh (99) to identify Hemraj’s body when it was (100).
91.        a) unilaterally                 b) bilaterally                   c) unequivocally
            d) blatantly                    e) formally
92.        a) external                     b) outsider                     c) guest
            d) host                          e) one
93.        a) engaged                    b) exercised                  c) involved
            d) abetted                      e) busy
94.        a) Fortunately                b) Probably                    c) Basically
            d) Ironically                    e) Formally
95.        a) final                           b) closure                      c) post mortem
            d) business                   e) last
96.        a) guilt                          b) hypothesis                 c) offence
            d) defence                     e) case
97.        a) leveled                       b) made                        c) marshaled
            d) accused                    e) put
98.        a) circumstantial            b) evident                      c) not
            d) acceptable                 e) functional
99.        a) accepted                   b) honoured                   c) refused
            d) wanted                      e) expected
100.      a) found             b) discovered                 c) invented
            d) obliged                      e) known
                       

                        &*************************************************&

ANSWERS – QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE AND REASONING

1.A       2.C       3.E       4.B       5.D       6.B       7.E       8.C       9.A       10.D
11.E      12.C     13.A     14.D     15.B     16.B     17.C     18.E      19.A     20.D
21.D     22.E      23.A     24.B     25.C     26.B     27.D     28.E      29.C     30.A
31.E      32.C     33.A     34.B     35.D     36.E      37.B     38.D     39.C     40.A
41.B     42.C     43.D     44.A     45.E      46.C     47.A     48.D     49.B     50.E
51.E      52.C     53.A     54.D     55.A     56.D     57.E      58.B     59.C     60.A
61.B     62.D     63.C     64.D     65.B     66.A     67.D     68.C     69.A     70.C
71.C     72.B     73.D     74.C     75.A     76.B     77.B     78.C     79.D     80.D
81.B     82.D     83.D     84.A     85.C     86.A     87.E      88.C     89.D     90.B
91.C     92.B     93.E      94.E      95.A     96.D     97.D     98.B     99.D     100.D

TEST III—MARKETING, COMPUTER AWARENESS AND GENERAL AWARENESS
1.      (C)       2.  (D)   3.  (D)               4.   (C)              5.   (C)              6.   (B)              7.  (A)  
8.  (C)         9.  (A)   10. (A)              11. (C)              12. (A)              13. (B)              14. (C)

15.(E)          16.(E)    17. (D)              18. (D)              19. (D)              20. (C)              21. (C) 

22.(E)          23.(A)   24. (B)              25. (D)               26.(D)              27. (E)               28. (C) 

29 (A)         30.(D)   31. (A)              32. (C)              33. (A)             34. (A)              35. (A) 
     
36.(B)   37.(E)    38. (D)  39. (E)               40. (C)             41. (E)               42. (C) 

      43 (D)         44.(C)   45. (B) 46. (B)  47. (E)              48. (D)              49. (A) 

      50 (D)

TEST IV - ENGLISH

51.d      52.c      53.e      54.e      55.e      56.b      57.c      58.d      59.c      60.e

61.e      62.d      63.e      64.a      65.e      66.c      67.b      68.b      69.d      70.b

71.a      72.d      73.d      74.c      75.d      76.b      77.d      78.e      79.a      80.c

81.a      82.c      83.b      84.d      85.a      86.c      87.d      88.c      89.a      90.e

91.c      92.b      93.c      94.d      95.b      96.c      97.c      98.a      99.c      100.b

EXPALANATORY ANSWERS (ENGLISH)

66.        c; Replace ‘workers were’ with ‘worker was’ because ‘more than one’ takes singular noun and singular verb
67.        b; Replace ‘direction’ with ‘discretion’
68.        b; ‘to be the’
69.        Replace ‘quitted’ with ‘quit’
70.        b; Replace ‘is done’ with ‘is being done’
71.        a; Replace ‘trumpet’ with ‘whistle’
72.        d; Replace ‘by’ with ‘with’
73.        d; Replace ‘scattered’ with spread
74.        c; Replace ‘last’ with ‘latest’
75.        d; Replace ‘on’ with ‘over’

                        *******************************************************************
SBI PO MODEL PAPER TWO Reviewed by sambasivan srinivasan on 12:30:00 PM Rating: 5

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