REASONING --useful for BANK PO AND CLERKS
Qn1. If another meaningful word can be framed from all the four letters of the word TAIL, each letter being used only once, then the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one meaningful word can be formed then your answer will be X and if so such word can be formed then your answer will be ‘5’ i.e. None of these.
1. A 2. I 3. L 4. X 5. None of these.
Qn2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ADVERTISEMENT which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. More than five 5. None of these.
Qn3. In a code language ‘ABHIJIT’ is written as ‘CEJLLLV’. How is ‘BROTHER’ written in that code?
1. ETRVKGU 2, DUQWJHT 3.DURWJIT 4. EUQWKHT 5. none of these.
Qn.4. Four of the following five are similar in relation to their position in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
1. GIQ 2. BDW 3. IKP 4. FHS 5. DFU
Qn.5. I. ‘A*B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.
II. ‘AOB’ means ‘B is the mother of A’.
III. ‘ A + B’ means ‘ A is the father of B’
IV. ‘A = B’ means ‘B is the father of A’..
Which of the following means ‘M is the maternal uncle of N’?
1. M = P + Q * N 2. 2. N + P = Q * M 3. N * P o Q * M
4. M + Q = P O N 5. None of these
Directions. Q 6-9: Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
I. A factory holds a competition to decide “Best Performance” and “Most Popular” awards. Each worker gives marks out of 100 for ‘performance’ as well as ‘popularity’ for nominated six workers.
II. A,B, C, D, E and F are six workers who are given ranks separately for ‘performance’ and ‘popularity’ on the basis of marks obtained by them.
III. The ranking for ‘performance’ given in descending order on the basis of marks obtained by the six workers was such that ‘A’ was fifth and ‘F’ was first. ‘B’s marks on performance were slightly lower than’F’ but slightly better than ‘E’. ‘D’s rank in one case was sixth and in other it was fourth. D’s marks on performance were slightly better than A.
IV. When the ranks for ‘popularity’ were given in ascending order of their marks, with rank one for least popular and rank six for most popular. E’s rank remains unchanged but C’s rank was replaced by D and A replaced B’s rank.
Q.6. Who was most popular?
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these.
Q.7. Who among the following is likely to have lower marks in performance as well as popularity?
1. B 2. A 3. E 4. D 5. F
Q.8. Who got lowest marks in performance?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these.
Q.9. What rank ‘F” received on popularity?
1. One 2. Two 3. Six 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these.
Directions . Q.10-13: Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
I. There is a rectangular wooden block of length 4 cm, height 3 cm and breadth 3 cm.
II. The two opposite surfaces of 4 cm x 3 cm are painted from outside by yellow colour.
III. The other two opposite surfaces of 4 cm x 3 cm are painted from outside by read colour.
IV. The remaining two surfaces of 3 cm x 3 cm are painted from outside by green colour.
V. Now, the block is cut in such a way that cubes of 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm are created.
Q.10. How many cubes will have only one colour?
1. 10 2. 12 3. 14 4. 18 5. None of these.
Q.11. How many cubes will have no colour?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 4 4. 8 5. None of these.
Q.12. How many cubes will have all the three colours red, yellow and green?
1. 24 2. 20 3. 16 4. 12 5. None of these.
Q.13. How many cubes will have any two colours?
1. 32 2. 24 3. 16 4. 12 5. None of these.
Q.14. In a class Bijoy ranks 8th from the top and Satish 29th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class?
1. 37 2. 35 3. 38 4. can’t be determined
5. None of these.
Q.15. How many 3s are there in the following number series which are followed by 6 as well as preceded by 8?
3 6 6 8 3 6 6 8 3 6 8 3 6 3 8 3 6 3 8 3 3 8 3 3 9
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 5. None of these.
Directions. Q 16-20: In an office there are eight sections named as I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII and VIII. No visitor is allowed to visit one section for more than an hour. If a visitor has to visit more than one section he has to come back to security officer to get fresh visitor’s pass by surrendering earlier section’s pass.
Every hour the security officer generates seven pass word for all section by choosing a set of seven words, which is used for Section I which is reception-cum-visitors hall. Following is an illustration of generation of seven pass words for each section.
Section I: sri am cue way meat fro le
II: le cue am way meat fro sri
III. cue le way am meat si fro
IV: fro way le am meat sri cue
V: way fro am le meat cue sri
and so on till Section VIII.
16. A visitor was given a pass word ‘pit sy me ole try je no’. If at that time the password for Section I was ‘me no pit je try ole sy’, which of the following sections the visitor wanted to visit?
1. III 2. IV 3. VI 4. VII 5. None of these.
17. A visitor for Section VII had following password ‘rye fu che it can si pecha’. What was password for Section I at that time?
1. che pecha rye si can it fu 2. pecha che fu it can si rye
3. fue rye pecha si can it che 4. rye fu si pecha che can it
5. None of these.
18. A visitor wanted to visit Section VI but he was wrongly given password for Section IV ‘ear two it rye sit he wu’. What would be his correct password for Section VI, if hourly password remains the same?
1. he rye ear it sit wu two 2. two ear rye it sit wu he
3. wu it two rye sit he ear 4. rye he it ear sit two wu
5. None of these.
19. If the first two words of password of Section III are ‘lie spell’ for which of the following section’s pass word will begin with the same two words in the same sequence?
1. V 2. VII 3. IV 4. VI 5. None of these.
20. A visitor visited Section II in the first fifteen minutes of a new hourly code and wanted to visit Section VI. If his password for Section II was ‘ne mew fu six also bet ga’, what would be his password for Section VI?
1. six bet fu also mew ga ne 2. ga fu bet ne also mew six
3. six fu bet ga ne also mew 3. fu ga ne bet six also mew
5. fu ga ne bet also six mew.
Directions (Q 21-25): Below are given five figures out of which one describes correctly the relationship among the three classes mentioned in each question. You have to state which figure depicts accurately the relation among the given classes:
1 2 3
Q.21. Buffaloes, cows, pregnant (animals)
1. 1. 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5
Q.22. Educated persons, fathers, government servants
1. 1 2.2 3. 3 4. 4 5.5
Q.23. Atom, molecule matter
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5.5
Q.24. Brother, male, sister
1. 1 2. 2 3.3 4.4 5.5
Q.25 Educated, unemployed, humans
1.1 2.2 3.3 4.4 5.5
Directions. Q 26-30: Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark Answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark Answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark Answer (3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark Answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘defnitely false’ in the light of the facts given
Mark Answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Now read the following information and answer the questions given below:
Coastal ecosystems are threatened by development-related activities along roughly half of the world’s coasts, according to a study conducted recently. The study indicates that about 34 per cent of the world’s coasts are at high potential risk of degradation and another 17 per cent are at moderate risk. Most of the coastal ecosystems potentially threatened by development are located within northern temperate and northern equatorial zones. Europe, with 86 per cent of its coasts at either high or moderate risk, and Asia, with 69 per cent of its coast in these categories, are the regions whose coastal ecosystems are most threatened by degradation.
Q.26. No further development work be carried out towards northern part of the world.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q27. Coastal ecosystems of areas, which are not affected by development activities, are more likely to be safe and protected.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q28. The thrust of the development activities seems to be concentrated less across European coastal lines than the Asian coastal line.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q29. Throughout the world the sea food will become dearer in near future.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q30. Deep sea marine life is in great danger now.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q.31. ‘Table’ is related to ‘writing’ in the same way as ‘_______’ is related to cooking?
1. cooker 2. cook 3. stove 4. cylinder 5. None of these.
Q.32. Pointing to a woman, a man says: “She is the mother of my son-in-law’s brother’s only sistern-in-law”. How is the woman related to the man?
1. mother 2. wife 3. sister 4. mother-in-law 5. sister-in-law
Q.33. Rajesh and Amutha have 4 persons between them while they sit on a circular table. How many persons sit on the table?
1. 2 2. 6 3. 7 4. can’t be said 5. None of these.
Q.34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of these does not belong to the group?
1. Bat 2. Whale 3. Man 4. Cock 5. Cellulose
Q.35. Which of the following would come in place of the question mark if the letter series given below was to be continued?
AXM BYN D`ZP ?
1. GBS 2. GAR 3. EAR 4. EAS 5. GAS
Directions (Q 36-37): In a certain code language:
I. ‘do po ta’ means ‘She is beautiful’.
II. ‘po ho no’ means ‘Who is Rahman’.
III. ‘ta suk duk’ means ‘She could kill’.
Q.36. What is the code for beautiful?
1. do 2. po 3. ta 4. can’t be determined
5. None of these.
Q.37. To find the answer to the question No.36, which of the statements was unnecessary?
1. only I 2. Only II 3. Only III 4. Either II or III
5. None of these.
Q.38. How many 7’s are there in the following sequence that are preceded by an even number and not followed by a prime number?
2 7 2 4 3 7 4 7 1 6 8 7 2 6 7 4 3 1 7 5 4 7 4
1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. Four
Q.39. If 1 is coded as P, 2 as Z, 3 as C , 4 as R, 5 as J, 6 as W, 7 as N, 8 as G and 9 as Q, then which of the following is the code for 78961472?
1.NGQRPWNZ 2. NGQPWRNZ 3. NGQWRPNZ 4. NGQWPRNZ 5.none of these.
Q.40. Ram is taller than Shyam but Shorter than Mohan. Madan is taller than Mohan but shorter than Sudha? Who is the tallest?
1. Ram 2. Shyam 3. Mohan 4. Madan 5. Sudha
Directions(Q. 41-45): In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsehood.
Mark answer (1) if you think the inference is ‘definitely true’; (2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given; (3) if you think the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false; (4) if you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and (5) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e. it contradicts the given facts.
Gold has always been in great demand in Kerala. Malayalees are considered to be among the largest consumers of gold in the world. The production of gold in the State, however, is low and is restricted to Nilambur and a few other areas in the northern districts. Indeed, this is the case elsewhere in the country too, with the production centers—the Hutti Gold Mine, Bharat Gold Mines and Kolar Gold Fields – together accounting for about three tones annually, a small fraction of the country’s demand, which is the highest in the world. According to the World Gold Council (WGC), a Geneva-based international organization formed by leading gold mining companies, India used up 477 tonnes of gold in 1995.
Q.41. Keralites love ornamentation.
Q.42. The people of Kerala speak a language called Malayalam.
Q.43. Production of gold is a profitable business in Kerala.
Q.44. WGC is dominated by Indian members.
Q.45. India consumed about 495 tonnes of gold in 1994.
Directions (Q.46-50): Six persons K.L,M,N, O and P are playing a game. Three of them are doctors who work in the same hospital. One is a lawyer and one a clerk. The remaining person is O who is retired and lives with his married son M. There are two married couples here and no male is either a lawyer or a clerk. Among the three doctors, N’s husband obtained more points than P while P has got more than L. P’s sister gets less points than her husband L and also less than M.
Q.46. Who is the unmarried doctor?
1. K 2. O 3. M 4. P 5. None of these.
Q.47. Which is a pair of females?
1. L, M 2. K, L 3. M,N 4. N,O 5. K, N
Q.48. Who obtained the minimum points?
1. K 2. N 3. L 4. M 5. Can’t say
Q.49. Who is the lawyer?
1. O 2. P 3. K 4. N 5. Can’t say.
Q.50. Who is N’s husband?
1. M 2. P 3. L 4. O 5. Can’t say.
Directions. Q. 51-60: Each group of question in this section is based on a sect of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.
Passage I (Q.51-54)
There are exactly stores and no other buildings on a straight street in Bistupur Market. On the northern side of the street, from West to East, are stores 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9; on the southern side of the street, also from West to East, are stores 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10. The stores on the northern side are located directly across the street from those on the southern side, facing each other in pairs, as follows: 1 and 2; 3 and 4; 5 and 6; 7 and 8; 9 and 10. Each store is decorated with lights in exactly one of the following colours: green, red and yellow. The stores have been decorated with lights according to the following conditions.
No store is decorated with lights of the same colour as those of any store adjacent to it. No store is decorated with light of the same colour as those of the store directly across the street from it. Yellow lights decorate exactly one store on each side of the street. Red lights decorate store 4. Yellow light decorate store 5.
51. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colours of the lights that decorate store 2,4, 6, 8 and 10, respectively?
1) green, red, green, red, green 2) green red, green, yellow, red
3) green, red, yellow, red, green 4) yellow, green, red, green, red
5) yellow, red, green, red, yellow
52. If green lights decorate store 7, then each of the following statements could be false except.
1) Green lights decorate store 2 2) Green lights decorate store 10
3) Red light decorate store 8 4) Red light decorate store 9
5) Yellow lights decorate store 2
53. Which one of the following statements must be true?
1) Green light decorate store 10 2) Red light decorate store 1
3) Red lights decorate store 8 4) Yellow lights decorate store 8
5) Yellow lights decorate store 10
54. Suppose that yellow lights decorate exactly two stores on the south side of the street and exactly one store on the north side. If all other conditions remain the same, then which one of the following statement must be true?
1) Green lights decorate store 1 2) Red lights decorate store 7
3) Red lights decorate store 10 4) Yellow lights decorate store 2
5) Yellow lights decorate store 8
Passage - II (Q. 55-58)
Professor Mukhopadhay works only on Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Fridays, and Saturday. She performs four different activities - lecturing, conducting quizzes, evaluating quizzes, and working on consultancy projects. Each working day she performs exactly one activity in the morning and exactly one activity in the afternoon. During each week her work schedule must satisfy the following restrictions:
She conducts quizzes on exactly three mornings. If she conducts quizzes on Monday, she does not conduct a quiz on Tuesday. She lectures in the afternoon on exactly two consecutive calendar days. She evaluates quizzes on exactly one morning and three afternoons. She works on consultancy project on exactly one morning. On Saturday, she neither lectures nor conducts quizzes.
55. On Wednesday, the Professor could be schedule to
1) Work on consultancy project in the morning and conduct a quiz in the afternoon.
2) lecture in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon.
3) conduct a quiz in the morning and lecture in the afternoon.
4) conduct a quiz in the morning and work on consultancy project in the afternoon.
5) evaluate quizzes in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon.
56. Which one of the following statements must be true?
1) There is none day on which she evaluates quizzes both in the morning and in the afternoon.
2) She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she lectures.
3) She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she evaluate quizzes.
4) She lectures on one of the days on which she evaluates quizzes.
5) She lectures on one of the days on which she conducts quiz.
57. If the Professor conducts a quiz on Tuesday, then her schedule for evaluating quizzes could be
1) Monday morning, Monday afternoon, Friday morning, Friday afternoon
2) Monday morning, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
3) Monday afternoon, Wednesday morning Wednesday afternoon, Saturday
4) Wednesday morning, Wednesday day afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday
5) Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoon, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon.
58. Which one of the following must be a day on which Professor lectures?
1) Monday 2) Tuesday 3) Wednesday 4) Friday
Passage III (Q/ 59-60)
During a four-week period, each one of seven previously unadvertised products - G, H, J, K, L, M and O - will be advertised. A different pair of these products will be advertised each week. Exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. None of the other products gets repeated in any pair. Further, the following constraints must be observed:
J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately preceding week.
The product that is advertised twice is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3.
G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or O is also advertised that week.
K is advertised during one of the first two weeks.
O is one of the products advertised during week 3.
59. Which one of the following could be the schedule of the advertisements.
1)Week 1: G, J; week 2: K, L; 2) Week 1: H, K, week 2: J, G
week 3: O, M; week 4: H, L week 3: O, L; week 4: M, K
3) Week 1: H, K; week 2: J, M; 4) Week 1: H, L; week 2: J, M;
week 3: O, L; week 4: G, M week 3: O, G; week 4: K, L
5) Week 1: K, M; week 2: H, J;
week 3: O, G; week 4: L, M
60. If L is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that must be advertised during one of the weeks in which L is advertised?
1)G 2) H 3) J 4) K 5) M
Qn. Ans Qn. Ans Qn. Ans Qn. Ans Qn. Ans
01 5 02 4 03 2 04 1 05 3
06 4 07 4 08 3 09 4 10 1
11 2 12 5 13 3 14 4 15 4
16 4 17 3 18 1 19 5 20 2
21 5 22 2 23 1 24 4 25 3
26 5 27 4 28 2 29 3 30 3
31 3 32 2 33 4 34 5 35 5
36 1 37 5 38 3 39 4 40 5
41 1 42 2 43 2 44 4 45 3
46 4 47 5 48 5 49 5 50 1
51 2 52 4 53 2 54 4 55 3
56 5 57 5 58 2 59 2 60 5
Q01. 5; No other meaningful word can be formed from the letters of the word TAIL.
Q02. 4; There are 6 pairs, viz. DI,DN,RM,TN,IM,IE which have as many letters between them as in the English Alphabets.
Q03. 2; The code is obtained by moving the letters alternately by 2 and 3 steps forward. Similarly, D V Q W J H T can be obtained from BROTHER.
Q04. 1; Except in (1), in all other groups, the position of second letter is same from the left as that of the third letter from right. (in alphabets)
Q05. 3; N * P means N is the sister of P
Q * P means Q is the sister of M
Hence, M is the maternal uncle of N.
For Qns.6 to 9: The given data, can be tabulated as given below:
Name Performance Order Popularity Order
A V II
B II --
C VI --
D IV VI
E III III
F I --
For Qns. 10 – 13: Please draw diagram as given in the problem.
Q10. 1; 2+ 2 + 2+ 2 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 10 cubes will have only one colour. Other sides are painted since they are hidden inside.
Q.11. 2; Two cubes cut out of wood lying inside will have no colour.(hidden inside)
Q.12. 5; 4 x 2 = 8 cubes will have all the three colours. (cubes cut out of top/bottom wood on all four sides.)
Q.13. 3; Similarly 2 +2+2+2+4+4 = 16 cubes will have two colours.
For Qns. 16-20: Following rules are followed to generate the password in order to visit a particular section.
For Section II, first and last words of pass word for section I are interchanged, and so also the second and third words.
For Section III, first and second words are inter changed third and fourth words, and sixth and seventh words of the password of Section II.
Passwords for other sections may be obtained by repeating the above steps alternately.
Q.16. Given password for Section I as ‘me no pit je try ole sy’
According to the above assertions, other passwords would be as follows:
Section II: sy pit no je try ole me
SectionIII: pit sy je no try me ole
Section IV: ole je sy no try me pit
Section V je ole no sy try pit me
Section VI: me no ole sy try pit je
Section VII: no me sy ole try je pit
Section VIII: pit sy me ole try je no
Hence the visitor wanted to visit Section VIII.
Q.17. From given password for Section VII, other generated passwords are:
Section VI: fu rye it che can pecha si
Section V: si it rye che can pecha fu
Section IV: it si che rye can fu pecha
Section III: pecha che si rye can fu it
Section II: che pecha rye si can it fu
Hence, the password for Section I is fu rye pecha si can it che
Q.18. From the given password for Section IV, passwords for other sections are:
Section V: two ear rye it sit wu he
Section VI: he rye ear it sit wu two
Q.19. From Q 16, it is clear that the first two passwords for Section III repeat in the same sequence in the password for Section VIII.
Q.20.. From the given password for SectionII, other generated passwords are:
Section III: mew ne six fu also ga bet
Section IV: bet six ne fu also ga mew
Section V: six bet fu ne also mew ga
Section VI: ga fu bet ne also mew six
Qn.21: 5. No cow is a buffalo. But some buffaloes may be pregnant, some may be not. Similarly, some cows may be pregnant, some may not be.
Q.22. 2; Some educated persons are fathers, some are not. Some fathers are government servants, some are not. Some government servants are educated persons, some are not.
Q.23. 1; Atom is part of a molecule, mole is part of matter.
Q.24.4; All brothers are males. No sister is a male.
Q.25. 3; All educated are humans. All unemployed are humans. Some educated are unemployed while some are not.
Q.26. 5; The inference is definitely false as the said reason is not enough to suspend development work in these zones or northern part of the world.
Q.27. 4; The inference is probably false as it cannot be inferred that coastal ecosystem of areas, which are not affected by development activities are more likely to be safe and protected which may have some other risk factors.
Q.28.2; The inference is probably true because, as mentioned, about 86% of coastal area of Europe are at either moderate or high risk of degradation.
Q.29.3; The data is inadequate to infer whether the inference is true or false.
Q.30. 3; The data is inadequate to decide about the inference.
Q.31. 3; We ‘write’ on a ‘table’. We ‘cook’ on a ‘stove’.
Q.32. 2; A’s brother’s only sister-in-law = A’s wife
Therefore Son-in-law’s brother’s only sister-in-law
= son-in-law’s wife = wife.
Q.33. 4; The given information is not sufficient.
Q.34.5; Cellulose is not a living thing.
Q.35.5; The first and the third letters form a ‘skip none, skip one, skip two’ sequence. A,B,D,G; M,N,P,S. The second letter forms a ‘skip none, skip none, skip none” sequence: X,T,Z,A.
Q.36.1; From I and II we find that the code for ‘is’ is ‘po’. From II and III we find that the code for ‘she’ is ‘ta’. Therefore, in I, the code ‘do’ must stand for ‘beautiful’.
Q.37. 5; All have to be used.
Q.38. 3; (two)
2 7 2 4 3 7 4 7 1 6 8 7 2 6 (7) 4 3 1 7 5 4 (7) 4
Q.40. 5; Sudha > Madan > Mohan > Ram > Shyam
Q.41. 1; The first sentence makes this inference definitely true. Otherwise why would there be ‘always a great demand’ for gold.
Q.42. 2; The second sentence makes it clear that the people of Kerala are called Malayalees.
Q.44. 4; WGC is an organization formed by leading gold mining companies. Also India has very few big gold mining companies and production is usually low. Therefore, it is extremely unlikely that many Indian members would be in the WGC.
Q.45. 3; Data is inadequate.
Qn.46-50: (i) O is retired, son is M who is married.
(ii) Lawyer and clerk are females.
(iii) N’s husband, P and L are the doctors; they have obtained points in that order.
(iv) P’s sister gets less than L (her husband) and M.
Sex: From (i), M is male; from (iv), L is a male. This leaves, K, N, O, P. But note that the 4th sentence uses the word ‘his’ to say that M is O’s son. Hence O is a male too. Also, N is a female (from iii). This leaves K and P. But P is a doctor (from iii) but the females are lawyer and clerk. Som, we have K. Hence, K and N are two females while all others are males.
OCCUPATION: O is retired. There are three doctors. So, L, M, P must be doctors as the remaining two – N and K – are females who are lawyer and clerk. But, who is the lawyer and who is the clerk?
MARITAL STATUS: N’s husband is a doctor, other than L and P. So N’s husband is M. P’s sister has obtained than L, while N has got more than L. So, P’s sister can’t be N. So, P’s sister must be K, the other female. Hence, K and L are the other married couple.
Points: From (iii), M>P>L
` From (iv), K,L, K
Rearranging, we have: M>P>L>K
We can’t exactly find the position of O and N here. Hence answers are
REASONING --useful for BANK PO AND CLERKS Reviewed by sambasivan srinivasan on 10:06:00 PM Rating: