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IBPS PO V - PRELIMINARY TEST MODEL PAPER

IBPS PO PRELIMINARY TEST



REASONING ABILITY
1. In a certain code BOARD is written as 53169 and NEAR is written as 2416. How is NODE written in that code?
a) 2394 b) 2894 c) 2934  d) 2694       e) None of these
2. What should come next in the following sequence of letters?
B    B    C    B    C    D     B     C         D         E          B         C         D
E    F     B    C    D    E     F     G         B         C         D         E          F
a) B       b) G      c) H               d) D     e) None of these
3. In a certain code SPORADIC is written as QNORDJEB. How is TROUBLES written in that code?
a) SQTNTFMC b) TNQSRDKA                   c) TNQSTFMC           d) TFQSCMFT           e) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Mica        b) Zinc          c) Iron                     d) Chlorine                  e) Aluminium
5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the third, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word SHAREHOLDING, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
a) L             b) E       c) S         d) X     e) Y
6.  Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) 18     b) 24     c) 36      d) 34           e) 26
7. If ‘green’ means ‘yellow’; ‘yellow’ means ‘white’; ‘white’ means ‘red’; ‘red’ means ‘violet’; ‘violet’ means ‘black’; then which of the following will be the colour of human blood?
a) Red   b) Black      c) Green d) White          e) None of these
8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GLIMPSE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
a) None       b) One  c) Two                d) Three           e) More than three
9. EARN is related to RANE and BOND is related to NODB in the same way as TEAR is related to _____.
a) AERT     b) ATRE      c) ARET     d) REAT         e) None of these
10. How many such digits are there in the number 5831649 each of which is a far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?
a) None       b) One  c) Two    d) Three           e) More than three
11. If ‘ ’ means ‘added to’; ‘ ’ means ‘multiplied by’; ‘+’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘_’ means ‘divided by’ then 24 + 36 – 12  8  4 = ?
a) 36     b) 53     c) 5        d) -20          e) None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Coconut  b) Lotus               c) Lilly             d) Rose                        e) Marigold
Directions (Qs. 13-15)
i) ‘P  Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.              ii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.               iv) ‘P  Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
13. Which of the following represents ‘M is nephew of N’?
a) N – K + M     b) N  K  M          c) N  K  M d) N – K  M  T      e) None of these
14. How is T related to D in the expression : H + T  R – D?
a) Nephew  b) Niece        c) Nephew or Niece                       d) Data inadequate     e) None of these
15. Which of the following represents F is daughter of W?
a) W  R + F     b) W  R  F           c) W + R  F – T        d) W + R – F + T        e) None of these
       Directions (Qs. 16-20) : In each of these questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements:
Some bags are trunks.
All trunks are shirts.
Some shirts are books.
All books are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are bags.
II. Some books are bags.
III. Some shops are shirts.
IV. Some shirts are bags.
a) Only I and II follow    b) Only I and III follow                 c) Only III and IV follow
d) Only II and IV follow e) None of these
17. Statements :
All pens are chairs.
All flowers are chairs.
All chairs are trucks.
All trees are trucks.
Conclusions:
I. Some trucks are pens.
II. Some trucks are chairs.
III. Some trees are pens.
IV. Some trees are chairs.
a) Only I and III follow  b) Only I and II follow      c) Only III and IV follow
d) Only II and IV follow e) None of these
18. Statements:
All desks are pillars.
Some pillars are towns.
All towns are benches.
Some benches are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are towns.
II. Some benches are desks.
III. Some benches are pillars
IV. Some cars are pillars.
a) None follows b) Only I follows      c) Only II follows       d) Only III follows
e) Only IV follows
19. Statements:
All stations are houses.
No house is garden.
Some gardens are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions:
I. Some ponds are gardens.
II. Some ponds are stations.
III. Some ponds are houses.
IV. No pond is station.
a) Only I follows      b) Only either II or IV follows  c) Only I and II follow
d) Only I and IV follow  e) None of these
20. Statements:
Some towers are lanes.
Some lanes are roads.
Some roads are rivers.
Some rivers are jungles.
Conclusions:
I. Some jungles are roads.
II. Some roads are lanes.
III. Some jungles are towers.
IV. No jungle is road.
a) Only I follows      b) Only II follows          c) Only either I or IV follows d) Only IV follows
e) Only either I or IV and II follow
       Directions (Qs. 21-25): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
B ↑ A M 3 # D 2 E K 9 $ F @ N I T 4 1 U W © H 8 % V J 5 Y 6«7 R
21. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a letter or immediately followed by a letter but not both?
a) None       b) One  c) Two    d) Three           e) More than three
22. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
a) 9       b) U      c) I         d) 1 e) None of these
23. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a letter?
a) None       b) One          c) Two                    d) Three           e) More than three
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) D K 3      b) 4 N U       c) 8 J ©       d) F K N         e) 5 «%
25. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the eighteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
a) H      b) 9       c) %       d) E e) None of these
       Directions (Qs. 26-30): In each of these questions below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered a), b), c) and d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions those follow. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters/digits, give e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol:
1 # $ 9 8 6 % @ © 7 2 4 «3 5
Letter Code:
B D E N I V R G H K T J P F A
Conditions:
i) If both the first and the last elements in the group are odd digits both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
ii) If the first element is a symbol and the last element is an even digit, the codes for the first and the last elements are to be interchanged.
iii) If the first element is an odd digit and the last element is a symbol, both are to be coded as ‘Z’.
iv) If the first element is an even digit and the last element is an odd digit, both are to be coded as the code for the odd digit.
26. 3$95#1
a) FENADB      b) BENADF c) ZENADZ    d) FENADF    e) None of these
27. 8%©3#5
a) YRHFDY      b) ARHFDI              c) ARHFDA   d) YRHFDA   e) None of these
28. ©8143«$
a) EIBJFPH             b) VIBJFPY       c) EIBJFP#                 d) HIBJFPE                e) None of these
29. 6%@9#3
a) VRGNDF      b) FRGNDF c) YRGNDF   d) ZRGNDZ   e) None of these
30. «$6724
a) JEVKTP b) PEVKTJ  c) YEVKTY           d) ZEVKTZ    e) None of these
       Directions (Qs. 31-35): Each of these questions consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—
a) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II aloe is not sufficient to answer the question.
b) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
d) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
31. How is M related to F?
Statements:
I. F is sister of N who is mother of R.
II. M has two brothers of which one is R.
32. On which date in March was Pravin’s father’s birthday?
Statements:
I. Pravin correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is after 14th but before 19th March.
II. Pravin’s sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 17th  but before 21st March.
33. Among M, N, T, R and D each having different age who is the youngest?
Statements:
I. N is younger than only D among them.
II. T is older than R and Younger that M.
34. Village D is in which direction of village H?
Statements:
I. Village H is to the South of village A which is to the South-East of village D.
II. Village M is to the East of village D and to the North-East of village H.
35. How is ‘food’ written in a code language?
Statements:
I. ‘Always eat good food’ is written as ‘ha na pa ta’ in that code language.
II. ‘Enjoy eating good food’ is written as ‘ni ha ja pa’ in that code language.
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Qs. 36-55): What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following questions?
36. (-25  21  -12)  ? = 158.13
a) 250   b) 400   c) 300    d) 150         e) None of these
37. 25.6% of 250 +
a) 4225        b) 3025         c) 2025                   d) 5625                        e) None of these
38. c) 36865 + 12473 + 21045 – 44102 = ?
a) 114485    b) 28081       c) 26281     d) 114845        e) None of these
39. (15.20)2 – 103.04  ? = 8
a) 12     b) 6.5    c) 8.2     d) 16           e) None of these
40.
a) 2       b) 3       c) 1.2     d) 0.3          e) None of these
41. 7428
a) 0.5    b) 1.5    c) 0.2     d) 2.4          e) None of these
42. (560  32)  (720  48) = ?
a) 262.5       b) 255   c) 263.5              d) 271.25         e) None of these
43. 748  ?  9 = 861696
a) 122   b) 132   c) 128    d) 124         e) None of these
44. 3.2% of 500  2.4% of ? = 288
a) 650   b) 700   c) 600    d) 750         e) None of these
45. 333  33  3 = ?
a) 32697      b) 36297       c) 32679     d) 39267          e) None of these
46. (36)2 + (47)2  ? = 28.04
a) 55     b) 75     c) 105    d) 125         e) None of these
47.
a) 85184      b) 140608     c) 97336     d) 117649        e) None of these
48. 14785 – 358 – 4158 – 9514 = ?
a) 755   b) 825   c) 721    d) 785         e)None of these
49. 156 + 328  0.8 = ?
a) 287.2       b) 352.8        c) 418.4      d) 451.2           e) None of these
50. 1148  28  1408  32 = ?
a) 1800        b) 1804         c) 1814                   d) 1822                        e) None of these
51.
a) 51     b) 59     c) 53      d) 49           e) None of these
52. 1425 + 8560 + 1680  200 = ?
a) 58.325     b) 9973.4      c) 56.425    d) 9939.4         e) None of these
53. [(12)2  (14)2] (16)2 = ?
a) 282.24     b) 1764         c) 126         d) 104.25         e) None of these
54.
a)           b)            e)                      d)               e) None of these
55.
a) 2401        b) 2209         c) 2601                   d) 2304                        e) None of these
       Directions (56-60) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
56. 7413      7422     7440 ?    7503    7548
a) 7464        b) 7456         c) 7466                   d) 7477                        e) None of these
57. 4     16   36   64   100?
a) 120   b) 180   c) 136    d) 144         e) None of these
58. 12   33   96? 852 255
a) 285   b) 288   c) 250    d) 384         e) None of these
59. 70000    14000   2800?     112      22.4
a) 640   b) 420   c) 560    d) 540                     e) None of these
60. 102 99   104 97   106?
a) 96     b) 95     c) 100    d) 94           e) None of these
61. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction is increased by 120%, the resultant fraction is . What is the original fraction?
a)       b)       c)        d)             e) None of these
62. Mr. Rao invests a sum of Rs. 41,250 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. What approximate amount of compound interest will he obtain at the end of 3 years?
a) Rs. 8,100       b) Rs. 7,425              c) Rs. 8,210                 d) Rs. 7,879                e) Rs. 7,295
63. The profit after selling a pair of trousers for Rs. 863 is the same as the loss incurred after selling the same pair of trousers for Rs. 631. What is the cost price of the pair of trousers?
a) Rs. 750    b) Rs. 800     c) Rs. 763   d) Cannot be determined                    e) None of these
64. The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 6:5 respectively; if the breadth of the plot is 34 metres less than the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular plot?
a) 374 metres     b) 408 metres            c) 814 metres   d) 748 metres  e) None of these
65. Ninad, Vikas and Manav enter into a partnership. Ninad invests some amount at the beginning. Vikas invests double the amount after 6 months and Manav invests thrice the amount invested by Ninad after 8 months. They earn a profit of Rs. 45,000 at the end of the year. What is Manav’s share in the profit?
a) Rs. 25,000     b) Rs. 15,000            c) Rs. 12,000   d) Rs. 9,000                e) None of these
66. The cost of 7 tables and 12 chairs is Rs. 48,250. What is the cost of 21 tables and 36 chairs?
a) Rs. 96,500     b) Rs. 1,25,500         c) Rs. 1,44,750            d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
67. ‘A’ can complete a piece of work in 12 days. ‘A’ and ‘B’ together can complete the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can ‘B’ alone complete the same piece of work?
a) 15 days   b) 18 days    c) 24 days   d) 28 days       e) None of these
68. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 6523  544  1.2 = ?
a) 21     b) 33     c) 14      d) 8 e) 28
69. Raman drove from home to a neighbouring town at the speed of 50 kms./hr. and on his returning journey, he drove at the speed of 45 kms./hr. and also took an hour longer to reach home. What distance did he cover each way?
a) 450 kms.        b) 225 kms.               c) 900 kms.                  d) 500 kms      e) None of these
70.  of  of  of a number is 249.6. What is 50% of that number?
a) 3794 b) 3749 c) 3734  d) 3739       e) None of these
       Directions (71-80): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
       There is absolutely no point in complaining that over the years, there has been pressure for increased productivity and higher earnings for workers in industry. There are several ways for increasing employees’ earnings. Employee earnings can be increased by raising the selling price of the firm’s products and services, reducing profits or costs of raw materials, or augmenting labour productivity. However, increasing employee earnings by means other than increased labour productivity jeopardizes the firm’s competitive strength in the market. Higher prices usually mean fewer customers, reduced profit means less capital investment, and low-cost materials mean poor product quality. But , increasing labour productivity by enhancing skills and motivation creates an almost unlimited resource. The development of economic resources, human as well as nonhuman, is the product of human effort, and the quality of human effort in large part depends on human motivation.
       Enthusing employees with workaholic spirit through traditional authority and financial incentives has become increasingly difficult as employees become economically secure and their dependency on any one particular organization decreases. According to expectancy theorists, the motivation to work increases when an employee feels his performance is an instrument for obtaining desired rewards. Nevertheless, in many organizations today employees are entitled to organizational rewards just by being employed. Unions, governmental regulations, and the nature of the job itself in some cases prevent management from relating financial rewards to performance. People may be attracted to join and remain in organizations to receive organizational rewards to performance. People may be attracted to join and remain in organization to receive organizational rewards, but being motivated to join an organization is not the same as being motivated to exert effort in an organization. The challenge to management is to find and administer alternative forms of incentives which will induce employees to improve work performance. Such alternative forms of reinforcement will require increased understanding of motivational theories and programmes.
71. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
a) Development of economic resources is primarily the product of market conditions
b) Earning s can be increased by lowering the selling price of products.
c) Employees can be best motivated by providing financial incentives.
d) All employees should be entitled to organizational rewards just by being employed
e) None of these
72. Organisations can derive maximum advantages by
a) providing financial incentives to employees regardless of performance
b) enhancing labour productivity by increasing skills and motivation
c) encouraging employees to expend greater physical energy
d) inducing employees to improve work performance and control their demands
e) strictly adhering to governmental regulations
73. According t the passage, all of the following contribute to an increase in employee earnings, except
a) increasing the selling price of the company’s products
b) reducing profits in favour of employees
c) providing incentives and fringe benefits to employees
d) enhancing labour productivity                    e) increased capital investment
74. Employees feel motivated to work when they
a) experience good working conditions in the organization
b) deicde to produce goods and services as a result of team work
c) think of performance as a tool for obtaining rewards.
d) relate rewards to material prosperity          e) are members of the union
75. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning as the word ‘induce’ as used in the passage.
a) Appreciate     b) stimulate   c) Exhibit        d) Inflate         e) Threaten
76. Which of the following factors, according to the passage, adversely affects the organisation’s competitive strength?
a) Making rewards contingent on performance
b) Anti-productivity and anti-management activities of labour unions
c) Motivating employees with traditional authority
d) Increasing employee earnings regardless of their productivity      e) None of these
77. Which of the statements is/are not true in the context of the passage?
A) Human effort is the cause of the development of economic resources.
B) Management is free to relate financial rewards to performance.
C) Employees can be easily motivated with traditional authority today.
a) Both A) and B)    b) Only C)          c) Both A) and C)       d) Both B) and C)       e) None of these
78. Which of the following factors determine the quality of human efforts?
a) Desire and willingness of an individual to excel in whatever he undertakes
b) Economic resources available with the organization?
c) The individual’s innovativeness      d) Authoritarian leadership and job security.
e) None of these
79. In the context of the passage, a company’s competitive strength in the market is affected mainly because of
A) a slump in the international market.           B) poor Inter-departmental co-ordination.
C) decreased labour productivity.
a) Only A    b) Only B     c) Only C    d) Both B & C            e) None of these
80. Which of the following words is most opposite in meanings of the word ‘jeopardizes’ as used in the passage?
a) safeguards     b) endangers c) projects                    d) devalues                  e) decreases
       Directions (Qs. 81-85): One of the four words given in each of these questions may be wrongly spelt. The number of that wrongly spelt word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (e) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as the answer.
81. a) Defamation    b) Arrogant        c) Solitude       d) Exhorbitant e) All Correct
82. a) Decompose    b) Veteran          c) Ventursome d) Definition   e) All Correct
83. a) Wastefull        b) Prejudice                    c) Expensive    d) Embarrassing                      e) All Correct
84. a) Significiant     b) Possessive      c) Impatient                 d) Device        e) All Correct
85. a) Prosperous      b) Glumy            c) Dormant      d) Derogatory e) All Correct.
       Directions (Qs. 86-90): Read each sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
86. He gave me all the details of when he (a)/ had visited all the temples (b)/ while he will be going (c)/ on official tour. (d)/ No error (e).
87. Let’s all work (a)/ together as like homogeneous (b)/ group so that (c)/ success would be obvious (d)/ No error. (e)
88. The process was so simple (a)/ and easy to understand (b)/ that it hardly took (c)/ five minutes for us to learn it. (d)/ No error (e).
89. It is strange that (a)/ even after fifteen years of experience (b)/ he is still not (c)/ able to be performed. (d)/ No error (e)
90. What to make people (a)/ tense is actually (b)/ a mystery, which (c)/ is difficult to unfold. (d)/ No error (e)
       Direction (Qs. 91-95): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer these questions.
(A) The insurance policy has to be deposited with NABARD.
(B) I intend to purchase a tractor and certain other agricultural equipments.
(C) I shall therefore feel obliged if you send your representative to inspect the equipments.
(D) I shall be applying for a loan of Rs. Six lakhs from NABARD for that purpose.
(E) On completion, your representative may kindly inform me of the annual insurance premium.
(F) The rules states that the equipments have to be insured against accidents and fire.
91. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
a) A      b) B      c) C        d) D            e) E
92. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) A      b) B      c) C        d) D            e) E
93. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) A      b) B      c) C        d) D            e) E
94. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) A      b) B      c) C        d) D            e) E
95. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) A      b) B      c) C        d) D            e) E
       Directions (Qs. 96-100) : In each of these questions, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also are appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
96. Some people think their life is full of grief (a)/ and miseries (2)/ too grievous (3)/ to be born. (4)/ All correct (e)
97. The opinion (a)/ expressed (b)/ is based only on our transactions (c)/ with the party concerns. (d)/ All Correct (e)
98. I was surprised (a)/ when I got confirmation (b)/ of the news that he was the recipient (c)/ of the prestigious (d)/ award. All correct (e)
99. The circomstances (a)/ in which the claim (b)/ was made are certainly (c)/ unbelievable. (d)/ All Correct (e)
100. The authorities (a)/ always request our assistance (b)/ whenever they felt (c)/ they require (d)/ it. All Correct (e)
ANSWERS
1. a)      : B → 5, O → 3, A → 1, R → 6, D → 9, N → 2, E → 4
             NODE → 2394
2. b)
3. c) :    S P O R A D I C
             R    O    P    S      C     I           D         A
       -1    ↓     ↓     ↓     ↓      ↓     ↓          ↓          ↓          +1
             Q    N    O    R     D    J           E          B
       Similarly
             T    R    O    U     B     L          E          S
             U    O    R    T      S     E          L          B
             ↓     ↓     ↓     ↓      ↓     ↓          ↓          ↓
             T    N    Q    S      T     F          M         C
4. d)
5. e)      :S A L E, S E A L
6. c)      7. e) : Violet
8. c)      :G (L) I, I (MPS) E
9. a)
10. c)    :5 8 3 1 6 4 9       13 4 5 6 8 9
11. b)    :Putting proper symbols we get
             ? = 24 – 36  12 + 8 4
             = 24 – 3 + 32 = 53
12. a)
13. d)    :N – K + M  T
              N is sister of K, K is father of M and M is brother of T.
14. e)    :H + T  R – D
       H is father of T, T is mother of R and R is sister of D
       T is mother of D
15.  c)   16. c)    17. b)     18. d)          19. d)   20. e)
21. d) :#D, $F, %V
22. c)
23. b) : «7R
24. e)    25. a)
26. e) :Condition (I)
27. c) :Condition (IV)
28. d)
29. b) : Condition (IV)
30. a) : Condition (II)
31. d) : Sex of M not known
32. e)    33. e)    34. c)     35. e)
36. b) :
       ? =
37. b) :  = 119 – 25.6% of 250
        = 119 –
       = 119 – 64 = 55
       ⟹ ? = 552 = 3025
38. c)    39. e)    40. b)
41. a) : ? =
42. a) : ? =
? = 262.5
43. c) ? =
44. d) :
       ? =
45. e) : 32967
46. d) : ? =     =
47. e) :  =
             ? = 483 = 11052
48. a)
49. c) : ? = 156 + 328  0.8
       ⟹ ? = 156 + 262.4 ?
       = 418.4
50. b) : ? =
       ? = 41  44 = 1804
51. c)
52. e) : ? = 1425 + 8560 + 1680  200
       ? = 1425 + 8560 + 8.4
       ? = 9993.4
53. e) : ? =
       ? = 110.25
54. d) : ? =
       ? =
55. a) :
      
       ? = 492 = 2401
56. e) : The sequence is + 9, + 18, + 27, + 36, + 45
       ⟹ ? = 7440 + 27 = 7467
57. d) : The sequence is
       22 42 62 82 102 122
58. a) : The sequence is  3 – 3
       ? = 96  3 – 3 = 285
59. c) : The sequence is 5
60. b)
61. a) : Let the fraction be
      
      
      
62. d) : Compound interest
       = 41250
       = 49129.41 – 41250
       = Rs. 7879.41  Rs. 7879
63. e) Let the cost price be Rs. 7879
       863 – x = x – 631
2x = 863 + 631 = 1494
x = Rs. 747
64. d)
65. b) : Let Ninad invests Rs. x Amount invested by Vikas = 2x
       Amount invested by Manav = 3x
       Ratio of profit x  12 : 2x  6 : 3x  4
       i.e. 1 : 1 : 1
        Manav’s share = Rs. 15,000
66. c)
67. c)  : A’s one day’s work =
       (A + B)’s one day’s work =
       B’s one day’s work =
        B can complete the job in 24 days
68. c)
69. a) :Let the distance covered be S km.
                
       S =  km.
70. e) Let the number be N
       N =
       N = 7488      50% of N = 3744
71. e)    72. b)    73. e)     74. c)          75. b)   76. d)   77. b)   78. a)   79. c)   80. a)   81. d)   82. c) 83. a)     84. e)       85. b)
86. c) : while he was
87. b) : together as a homogeneous
88. e)
89. d) : able to perform
90. a) : what makes people
91. e)    92. a)    93. c)     94. d)          95. b)   96. d)   97. d)   98. e)   99. a)   100. c)



some questions do not appear properly on account of incompatibility between WORD AND blogger.  
IBPS PO V - PRELIMINARY TEST MODEL PAPER Reviewed by sambasivan srinivasan on 8:52:00 PM Rating: 5

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